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June, 2013 | Ecenterpk.com
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Ecenterpk.com Education Center Pakistan

28Jun/130

Out-of-school children: Pakistan ranks second in world: report

KARACHI, June 27: Pakistan ranks the second with the most out-of-school children in the world with only Nigeria ahead of it, said a child rights body on Thursday.

In its annual report titled ‘The state of Pakistan’s children 2012’, the Society for the Protection of the Rights of the Child (Sparc) said about one fourth of the 19.75 million children in Pakistan aged five to nine were out of school and factoring in adolescents increased the number to 25 million. Of them, seven million children (aged three to five) had yet to receive primary schooling.

“The country reduced its spending on education from 2.6 per cent to 2.3pc of the GNP (gross national product) over the decade and ranks 113th of the 120 countries on the Education Development Index,” said the Sparc report launched in a hotel here on Thursday.

At the provincial level, Punjab has the highest NER (net enrolment rate) for children in primary schools at 61pc followed by Sindh with 53pc, Khyber Pakhtunkhwa with 51pc and Balochistan with the lowest at 47pc. Pakistan has an NER of 74.lpc for all age groups enrolled either in primary, secondary or higher education.

Pakistan has the lowest youth literacy rate with 70.7pc. Only 61pc of girls are literate as compared to 79pc boys in the age group of 15-24 years.

Progress has been slowest in low-income countries, especially Pakistan, where only 15pc children received pre-primary education in 2010. It quoted a recent report saying 63pc of children aged three to five years were not receiving any education related to early childhood development.

The country ranks 129th among the 135 countries on the Gender Gap Index 2012 according to the Global Gender Gap Report. Data shows that gender parity for primary schools in Azad Kashmir is close to 1 (0.97). The GPI for Punjab stands at 0.98, in Balochistan it is 0.83 and in Sindh 0.81.

The report said 43pc children born in Pakistan were afflicted with stunting. It was estimated that 21.7pc children were severely and 21.3pc were moderately stunted.

It quoted the United Nations Children’s Fund as saying that under five years mortality rate had declined from 122 per 1,000 births in 1990 to 72 per 1,000 births in 2011; far from reaching the assigned target of 52 per 1,000 births as per the millennium development goal.

More than 423,000 children die before reaching their fifth birthday, and almost one in five of these deaths are due to pneumonia.

Pakistan accounted for nearly 30pc of all polio cases recorded worldwide. A total of 142 cases were reported in 2010; 198 cases in 2011. In 2012, the official reports show, 58 cases were recorded, excluding cases in the North and South Waziristan agencies.

It is estimated that 2.1 million cases of measles are reported annually in Pakistan and 21,000 of the reported cases die of complications from the disease. Pneumonia and diarrhoea account for 29pc of deaths among children under five worldwide or more than two million a year; with Pakistan ranking fourth among the countries with the highest prevalence of the disease.

A total of 55 of 96,000 infants, children and adolescents had been identified as HIV positive in Pakistan In 2012, around 5,659 cases of violence against children were reported across Pakistan from January to October 2012. These included 943 murders, 1,170 cases of injuries, 302 of sodomy; 204 of child trafficking, 410 of forced marriages and 164 of Karo-kari (honour killing) incidents, and 260 cases of missing children. Other incidents of violence included 407 cases of sexual assault, 547 torture cases, 323 child suicides, 530 kidnappings and 176 Vani cases.A total of 3,861 cases of child sexual abuse were reported in different parts of the country last year. Most of the cases were reported in Punjab (68pc), followed by Sindh (19pc), Khyber Pakhtunkhwa (5pc), Balochistan (3pc) and FATA (3pc).

The report said 197 of the 3,581 victims of drone strikes since 2004 were children.

The participants said children in Pakistan had to cope with a lack of educational opportunities, poor health conditions, a near absence of protection for poor and vulnerable children, miserable conditions in juvenile jails and continued employment of children in hazardous occupations.

Violence against children remains culturally entrenched as children in Pakistan have to cope with physical violence, sexual abuse, trafficking, recruitment in armed conflicts and acid attacks. In the absence of a national database on violence against children, the report relied on secondary sources to give the prevalence of various forms of violence against children.( source dawn.com)

28Jun/130

UNIVERISTY OF HEALTH SCIENCES SYLLABUS FOR ENTRY TEST 2013

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SYLLABUS

 

FOR

 

ENTRANCE TEST

 

2013

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

UNIVERSITY OF HEALTH SCIENCES

 

LAHORE, PAKISTAN

 

 

 

STRUCTURE OF ENTRANCE TEST PAPER 2013

 

 

Sr.#

Subject

No. of

 
   

Questions

 
       

1.

PHYSICS

44

 
   
       

2.

CHEMISTRY

58

 
   
       

3.

ENGLISH

30

 
   

 

 

4.

 

BIOLOGY

88

   
TOTAL

220

 

  CONTENTS PAGE#  
       
 

PHYSICS

   
       
  Syllabus

1-5

 
       
  TOS

6

 
       
  Self Test Questions

7-9

 
       
 

CHEMISTRY

   
       
  Syllabus

10-21

 
       
  TOS

22

 
       
  Self Test Questions

23-28

 
       
 

ENGLISH

   
       
  Syllabus

29-34

 
     
       
  Self Test Questions

35-36

 
       
 

BIOLOGY

   
       
  Syllabus

37-44

 
       
  TOS

45

 
       
  Self Test Questions

46-51

 
       

 

 

STRUCTURE OF THE SYLLABUS (2013)

 

F.Sc. and Non-F.Sc.

 

TABLE OF CONTENTS

 

  1. Physical Quantities and Units

 

  1. Forces

 

3. Fluid Dynamics

 

4. Light

 

5. Waves

 

6. Deformation of Solids

 

7. Ideal Gases

 

8. Heat and Thermodynamics

 

9. Electronics

 

10. Current Electricity

 

11. Magnetism and Electromagnetism

 

12. Modern Physics

 

13. Nuclear Physics

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

1

 

Learning Outcomes

 

a)  Understand what is physics.

 

b)  Understand that all physical quantities consist of a numerical magnitude and a unit.

 

c)  Recall the following base quantities and their units; mass (kg), length (m), time (s), current (A), temperature (K), luminous intensity (cd) and amount of substance (mol)

d)  Describe and use base units and derived units.

 

e)  Dimensional units of physical quantities.

 

 

 

2. FORCES:

 

Learning Outcomes

 

a)    Show an understanding the concept of weight.

 

b)    Show an understanding that the weight of a body may be taken as acting at a single point known as its centre of gravity.

c)    Weightlessness in an elevator.

 

d)    Define and apply the moment of force.

 

 

 

 

3. FLUID DYNAMICS:

 

Learning Outcomes

 

a)  Concept of viscosity.

 

b)  Understand the terms steady (Laminar, streamline) flow, incompressible flow, non-viscous flow as applied to the motion of an ideal fluid.

c)  Appreciate the equation of continuity.

 

A1V1    A2V2  for the flow of an ideal and incompressible fluid.

 

d) Understand Bernoulli’s equation

P   1  v 2            gh   Constant

2

 

e)  Understand that the pressure difference can arise from different rates of flow of a fluid (Blood flow).

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

2

 

Learning Outcomes

 

a)    Understand interference of light.

 

b)    Understand diffraction of light.

 

c)    Describe the phenomenon of diffraction of X-rays by crystals and its use.

 

d)    Understand polarization of light.

 

e)    Concepts of least distance of distinct vision. Short sightedness, long sightedness.

 

f)    Understand the terms magnifying power and resolving power

( R    1  , R            )  of optical instruments.

min

 

g)    Derive expressions for magnifying power of simple microscope and compound microscope.

 

h)    Understand the principle of optical fibres, types and its application.

 

 

 

 

5. WAVES:

 

Learning Outcomes

 

a)    Understand the simple harmonic motion with examples.

 

b)    Explain energy in simple harmonic motion.

 

c)    Describe practical examples of free and forced oscillations.

 

d)    Understand the resonance with its applications.

 

e)    Understand and describe Doppler’s effect and its causes. Recognize the application of Doppler’s effect.

f)    Understand Ultrasound with its uses in scanning.

 

g)    Show an understanding speed of sound in different media.

 

h)    Audioable frequency range.

 

 

 

 

6. DEFORMATION OF SOLIDS:

 

Learning Outcomes

 

a)    Appreciate deformation caused by a force and that is in one dimension.

 

b)    Understand tensile or compressive deformation.

 

c)    Understand the terms stress, stain young’s modulus and Bulk modulus.

 

d)    Energy stored in deformed material.

 

 

 

 

 

 

3

 

7. IDEAL GAS:

 

Learning Outcomes

 

a) Recall and use equation of state of an ideal gas PV   nRT .  
b) State   the basic assumptions of Kinetic theory of gases.  
c) Derive   gas laws on the basis of kinetic theory of gases.  
d) Understand pressure of gas P

2

N    

1

mv2    .  

3

0

2

 
           

 

 

 

8. HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS:

 

Learning Outcomes

 

a)    Understand the term thermal equilibrium.

 

b)    Concepts of temperature and temperature scales.

 

c)    Compare the relative advantage and disadvantage of thermocouple, thermometer and mercury thermometer.

d)    Understand laws of thermodynamics.

 

e)    Show an understanding the term internal energy.

 

 

 

 

9. ELECTRONICS:

 

Learning Outcomes

 

a)    Logic gates:

 

OR gate, AND gate, NOT Gate, NOR gate and NAND gate.

 

b)    Understand the basic principle of Cathode Ray Oscilloscope and appreciate its use.

 

 

 

 

  1. 10.       CURRENT ELECTRICITY:

 

Learning Outcomes

 

a)    State Ohm’s law and solve problems V= IR

 

b)    Combinations of resistors.

 

c)    Show an understanding of a capacitor.

 

d)    Combinations of capacitors.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

4

 

  1. 11.       MAGNETISM AND ELECTROMAGNETISM:

 

Learning Outcomes

 

a)     Magnetic field due to current in

 

i)     Straight wire

 

ii)    Solenoid

 

b)    Understand Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

 

 

 

 

  1. 12.       MODERN PHYSICS:

 

Learning Outcomes

 

a)    Principle of production of X-rays by electron bombardment on metal target.

 

b)    Describe main features of X-ray tube.

 

c)    Use of X-rays in imaging internal body structures.

 

d)    Show an understanding of the purpose of computed tomography or CT scanning.

 

e)    Show an understanding of the principles of CT scanning.

 

f)    Understand laser principle and its type (Helium – Neon Laser).

 

g)    Describe the application of laser in medicine and industry.

 

 

 

  1. 13.       NUCLEAR PHYSICS:

 

Learning Outcomes

 

a)    Understand Radioactivity.

 

b)    Understand Radioactive decay.

 

c)    Radio Isotopes and their biological uses.

 

d)     Nuclear radiation detectors

 

GM tube, Wilson cloud chamber.

 

e)    Radiation hazards and biological effect of radiation.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

5

 

F.Sc. and Non-F.Sc.

 

Sr.   No Topic MCQs
     
1. Physical   Quantities and Units

02

     
2. Forces

02

     
3. Fluid   Dynamics

03

     
4. Light

04

     
5. Waves

04

     
6. Deformation   of Solids

02

     
7. Ideal   Gases

02

     
8. Heat   and Thermodynamics

03

     
9. Electronics

02

     
10. Current   Electricity

03

     
11. Magnetism   and Electromagnetism

03

     
12. Modern   Physics

07

     
13. Nuclear   Physics

07

     
  Total

44

     

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

6

 

Choose single best option

 

Q.1 At the present time, how many frontiers of fundamental science are   there:
  A) Two C) One
  B)   Three D)   Four
Q.2 The unit of pressure in base unit is:  
  A) Kg ms-2 C) Kg m-1 s-2
  B) Kg   ms2 D) Kg   m-1 s-1
Q.3 The physical quantity which produces angular acceleration in body is   called:
  A) Force C) Centripetal force
  B)   Momentum D)   Torque
Q.4 A man in an elevator ascending with an acceleration will conclude   that his weight
  has:  
  A) Decreased C) Reduced to zero
  B)   Increased D)   Remained constant
Q.5 The Law of conservation of mass gives us the equation of:
  A) Stoke’s law C) Bernoulli’s theorem
  B)   Continuity D)   Torricelli’s theorem

 

 

 

Q.6        1 torr is equal to :

A)  135.3 Nm-2

B)  133.3 Nm-2

 

Q.7        Viscosity of liquids with rise in temperature:

 

A)  Increases

B)  Decreases


 

C)   132.3 Nm-2

 

D)  130.3 Nm-2

 

C)   Remains the same

 

D)  First decreases then increases

 

 

Q.8 The phenomenon of polarization of light reveals that light waves   are:
  A) Extremely short waves C) Transverse electromagnetic waves
  B) Longitudinal   waves D)   Long wavelength waves

 

 

Q.9        Diffraction of X-rays by crystals show that:

 

A)  X-rays are just like visible light

B)  X-rays are electromagnetic waves


 

C)   X-rays have very short wavelength

 

D)  The intensity of X-rays is high

 

 

Q.10 The image of an object 7mm high is only 1.4 cm high. The   magnification produced by
  lens is:  
  A) 0.7 C) 2
  B) 1 D) 0.2
Q.11 Infra-red signals travel through optical fibres of wavelength about:
  A) 2 μm C) 1.5 μm
  B) 1.3   μm D) 1.9   μm
Q.12 Total energy of a body executing simple harmonic motion is directly   proportional to:
  A) The amplitude C) Reciprocal of amplitude
  B)   Square root of amplitude D)   Square of amplitude
Q.13 The wavelength of the wave produced in a microwave oven is:
  A) 15 cm C) 12 cm
  B) 13   cm D) 10   cm
Q.14 The frequencies of ultrasonic waves are:  
  A) In audible range C) Lower than 20 kHz
  B)   Greater than 20 kHz D)   Greater than 20 Hertz
Q.15 A train is approaching a station at 90 Kmh-1 sounding a whistle of frequency 1000Hz.
  What will be the apparent frequency of the whistle as heard by a listener   sitting on
  the platform?  
  A) 1079.4 Hz C) 1078.5 Hz
  B)   1179.4 Hz D)   1178.5 Hz

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

7

 

  A)  X   A  B         __

__

           
      C)  X   A.B        
          ________       D) X  A . B        
  B)  X   A . B            
Q.17 Heat leaves a system; it is taken as:                          
  A) Positive           C) Neither positive nor negative  
  B)   Negative     D)   Zero                      
Q.18 First Law of Thermodynamics is the Law of:                          
  A) Conservation of momentum C) Conservation of mass  
  B)   Conservation of Energy D)   Conservation of velocity  
Q.19 Increase in temperature is due to increase in:                          
  A) Translational K.E C) Gravitational K.E  
  B)   Rotational K.E D)   Vibrational K.E    
Q.20 V  

2

    N

1

    mv2 > represents:                          
         

<

                               
     

3

    P

2

                               
  A) Boyle’s law.     C) Charles law        
  B)   Ideal gas     D) Gas   general equation  
Q.21 The dimension of strain is:   [ LT-1 ]                
  A) [ T ]                 C)                
  B) [ M   ]                 D)   None.                
Q.22 The ratio of applied stress to volumetric strain is called:                      
  A) Young’s modulus C) Bulk modulus        
  B)   Shear modulus D)   Modulus of elasticity  
Q.23 Beam of electron can be called as:                          
  A) Positive rays     C) Cosmic rays        
  B)   Cathode rays     D)   X-rays                
Q.24 Pressure of gas given by:     2 N        
  A) P

2

       

1

mv2 > C) P

1

mv2 >  
       

N <

             

<

     
                       
 

3

   

2

             
                        3   V

2

     
  B) P =   Constant K.E D) P 1    

No <

1

  mv2 >  
                                 
                          3    

2

 
                                             
Q.25 ‘OR’ and ‘AND’ gates have:                          
  A) Two outputs     C) Three output        
  B)   Single output     D) No   output        
Q.26 Shunt Resistance is called:                          
  A) Low resistance C) Bypass resistance  
  B)   High resistance D)   Specific resistance  
Q.27 One Coulomb per second is equal to:                          
  A) One   volt     C) One   Walt        
  B) One   ampere     D) One   ohm        
Q.28 Ohm is defined an:                          
  A) VC-1                 C) CV-1                      
  B) VA-1                 D) AV-1                      
Q.29 A current carrying conductor is surrounded by:                          
  A) Magnetic field C) Conservative field  
  B) Electric   field     D)   Gravitational field  
Q.30 Force on a charged particle having charge ‘ q ‘ moving with velocity   ‘ v ‘ parallel to  
  magnetic field of intensity ‘ B ‘ is given by:                          
  A) F = q vb     C) F = q v/B        
  B) F =   vb/q     D) F =   0                

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

8

 

cathode

B)  High voltage between anode and cathode


anode and cathode

D)  High power between anode and cathode

 

 

Q.32 In medical science which radiations are used to locate fractures or   cracks in bones or
  teeth:    
  A) Infra-red radiations C) X-rays  
  B)   Gamma radiations D)   Ultra violet radiations
Q.33 The minimum wavelength of X-ray produced if 10kvp Potential   difference is applied
  across the anode and cathode of the tube is:    
  A) 1.24 x 10-10m C) 124 x 10-10m
  B)   12.4 x 10-10m D)   0.124 x 10-10m
Q.34 Laser light is highly:    
  A) Directional C) Unpolarized  
  B)   Scattered D)   Non- directional
Q.35 A light beam from a high power laser when focused by a lens can   produce:
  A) A high temperature C) A moderate temperature
  B) A   low temperature D) A   very low temperature
Q.36 A laser beam can be employed safely to weld a detached:  
  A) Bone of body C) Retina of eye
  B)   Finger of hand D)   Tooth  
Q.37 CT scanning is the abbreviated name of:    
  A) Computed Technology C) Computerized Technique
  B)   Computed Tomography D)   Classical Technique
Q.38 One curie is equal to:    
  A) 3.70 x 1010 atoms decay   in one C) 3.70 x 106 atoms decay in one
  second second  
  B) 3.70 x 108  atoms decay in one D) 3.70 x 104 atoms decay in one
  second second  

 

Q.39      In cloud chamber, each track corresponds to the passage of:

A) One group of α particles C) Two α particles
B) One α particle D) Three α particles

 

Q.40      In β – particle emission its mass of nucleus remains practically the same while its

 

charge changes by:  
A) One unit C) Three unit
B) Two   unit D) Four   unit

 

Q.41      A nuclide 220R84 decay to a new nuclide S by two α - emissions and two β emissions; the nuclide S is:

A) 218S84 C) 212S82
B) 216S84 D) 216S82

 

 

Q.42      Beta particles are fast moving particles, called:

 

A)  Protons

B)  Electrons

 

Q.43      Cobalt-60 is used to:

 

A)  Cure blood cancer

B)  Cure bone cancer

 

Q.44      In radioactivity, the rate of decay:

 

A)  Can be increased by magnetic field

B)  Can be decreased by magnetic field


 

C)   Neutrons

 

D)  α-Particles

 

C)   Cure thyroid cancer

 

D)  Cure tumor

 

 

C)   Can be kept constant by electric field

D)  Is not effected by electric or magnetic field

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

9

 

STRUCTURE OF THE SYLLABUS (2013)

 

F.Sc. and Non-F.Sc.

 

TABLE OF CONTENTS

 

  1. A.  Physical Chemistry

 

  1. Fundamental Concepts

 

  1. States of Matter

 

  1. Atomic Structure

 

  1. Chemical Bonding

 

5. Chemical Energetics

 

  1. Solutions

 

  1. Electrochemistry

 

  1. Chemical Equilibrium

 

  1. Reaction Kinetics

 

B. Inorganic Chemistry

 

  1. Periods

 

  1. Groups

 

  1. Transition elements

 

  1. Elements of Biological Importance

 

C. Organic Chemistry  

 

  1. Fundamental Principles

 

  1. Hydrocarbon

 

  1. Alkyl Halides

 

  1. Alcohols and Phenols

 

  1. Aldehydes and Ketones

 

  1. Carboxylic Acid

 

  1. Amino Acids

 

  1. Macromolecules

 

  1. Environmental Chemistry

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

10

 

1. FUNDAMENTAL CONCEPTS:

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to:

 

a)    Define relative atomic, isotopic, molecular and formula masses, based on the 12C scale.

b)    Explain mole in terms of the Avogadro’s constant.

 

c)    Apply mass spectrometric technique in determining the relative atomic mass of an element using the mass spectral data provided.

d)    Calculate empirical and molecular formulae, using combustion data.

 

e) Understand stoichiometric calculations using mole concept involving.

 

i)  Reacting masses

 

ii) Volume of gases

 

 

2. STATES OF MATTER:

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to:

 

a)    Understate gaseous state with reference to:

 

i)    Postulates of kinetic molecular theory

 

ii)   Deviation of real gases from ideal behavior

 

iii)  Gas laws: Boyle’s law, Charles law, Avogadro’s law and gas equation (PV=nRT) and calculations involving gas laws.

iv) Deviation of real gases from ideal behaviour at low temperature and high pressure

 

v)  Causes of deviation from ideal behaviour

 

vi) Conditions necessary for gasses to approach ideal behaviour

 

b)    Discuss liquid state with reference to:

 

Evaporation, vapour pressure, boiling and hydrogen bonding in water

 

c)    Explain the lattice structure of a crystalline solid with special emphasis on:

 

i)    Giant ionic structure, as in sodium chloride.

 

ii)   Simple molecular, as in iodine

 

iii)  Giant molecular, as in graphite; diamond; silicon(IV) oxide

 

iv) Hydrogen-bonded, as in ice

 

v)  Metallic as in Cu and Fe.

 

d)    Outline the importance of hydrogen bonding to the physical properties of substances, including NH3, H2O, C2H5OH and ice.

 

e)    Suggest from quoted physical data the type of structure and bonding present in a substance

 

 

 

 

 

 

11

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to:

 

a)    Identify and describe the proton, neutron and electron in terms of their relative charges and relative masses

b)    Discuss the behaviour of beams of protons, neutrons and electrons in electric fields

 

c)    Calculate the distribution of mass and charges within an atom from the given data

 

d)    Deduce the number of protons, neutrons and electrons present in both atoms and ions for a given proton and nucleon numbers/charge.

e)

 

i)    Describe the contribution of protons and neutrons to atomic nuclei in terms of proton number and nucleon number

ii)   Distinguish between isotopes on the basis of different numbers of neutrons present

f)    Describe the number and relative energies of the s, p and d orbitals for the principal quantum numbers 1, 2 and 3 and also the 4s and 4p orbitals

g)    Describe the shapes of s and p orbitals

 

h)    State the electronic configuration of atoms and ions given the proton number/charge

 

i)     Explain:

 

i)    Ionization energy

 

ii)   The factors influencing the ionization energies of elements

 

iii)  The trends in ionization energies across a Period and down a Group of the Periodic Table

 

 

4. CHEMICAL BONDING:

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to:

 

a)    Characterise electrovalent (ionic) bond as in sodium chloride and Calcium oxide.

 

b)    Use the ‘dot-and-cross’ diagrams to explain

 

i)    Covalent bonding, as in hydrogen(H2); oxygen(O2); chlorine(Cl2); hydrogen chloride; carbon dioxide; methane and ethene

 

ii)   Co-ordinate (dative covalent) bonding, as in the formation of the ammonium ion and in H3N+-BF3.

c)    Describe the shapes and bond angles in molecules by using the qualitative model of electron-pair repulsion theory up to 4 pairs of electron including bonded electron pair and lone pair around central atom.

d)    Describe covalent bonding in terms of orbital overlap, giving σ and Π bonds

 

e)    Explain the shape of, and bond angles in ethane, ethene and benzene molecules in terms of σ and Π bonds

 

 

 

 

 

12

 

molecules containing N-H and O-H groups

 

g)    Explain the terms bond energy, bond length and bond polarity and use them to compare the reactivities of covalent bonds

h)    Describe intermolecular forces (Van der Waal’s forces), based on permanent and induced dipoles, as in CHCl3, Br2 and in liquid noble gases

 

i)     Describe metallic bonding in terms of a lattice of positive ions surrounded by mobile electrons

j)     Describe, interpret and/or predict the effect of different types of bonding (ionic bonding; covalent bonding; hydrogen bonding; Van der Waal’s forces and metallic bonding) on the physical properties of substances

k)    Deduce the type of bonding present in a substance from the given information

 

 

 

 

5. CHEMICAL ENERGETICS:

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to:

 

a)    Understand concept of energy changes during chemical reactions with examples of exothermic and endothermic reactions.

b)    Explain and use the terms:

 

i)    Enthalpy change of reaction and standard conditions, with particular reference to: Formation; combustion; hydration; solution; neutralization and atomisation

 

ii)   Bond energy (ΔH positive, i.e. bond breaking)

 

iii)  Lattice energy ( H negative, i.e. gaseous ions to solid lattice)

 

c)    Find heat of reactions/neutralization from experimental results using mathematical relationship.

∆H=mc∆T

 

d)    Explain, in qualitative terms, the effect of ionic charge and of ionic radius on the numerical magnitude of lattice energy

e)    Apply Hess’s Law to construct simple energy cycles, and carry out calculations involving such cycles and relevant energy terms, with particular reference to:

i)    Determining enthalpy changes that cannot be found by direct experiment, e.g. an enthalpy change of formation from enthalpy changes of combustion

ii)   Average bond energies

 

iii)  Born-Haber cycles (including ionisation energy and electron affinity)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

13

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to:

 

a)    Describe and explain following concentration units of solutions

 

i)    Percentage composition

 

ii)   Molarity (M)

 

iii)  Molality (m)

 

iv) Mole fraction (X)

 

v)  Parts of million (ppm)

 

b)    Understand concept and applications of colligative properties such as:

 

i)    Elevation of boiling point

 

ii)   Depression of freezing point

 

iii) Osmotic pressure

 

 

  1. 7.   ELECTROCHEMISTRY:

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to:

 

a)    Explain the industrial processes of the electrolysis of brine, using a diaphragm cell

 

b)    Describe and explain redox processes in terms of electron transfer and/or of changes in oxidation number

c)    Define the terms:

 

Standard electrode (redox) potential and Standard cell potential

 

d)    Describe the standard hydrogen electrode as reference electrode

 

e)    Describe methods used to measure the standard electrode potentials of metals or non-metals in contact with their ions in aqueous solution

f)    Calculate a standard cell potential by combining two standard electrode potentials

 

g)    Use standard cell potentials to:

 

i) Explain/deduce the direction of electron flow in the external circuit. ii) Predict the feasibility of a reaction

h)    Construct redox equations using the relevant half-equations

 

i)     State the possible advantages of developing the H2/O2 fuel cell

 

j)     Predict and to identify the substance liberated during electrolysis from the state of electrolyte (molten or aqueous), position in the redox series (electrode potential) and concentration

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

14

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to:

 

a)    Explain, in terms of rates of the forward and reverse reactions, what is meant by a reversible reaction and dynamic equilibrium

b)    State Le Chatelier’s Principle and apply it to deduce qualitatively the effects of changes in temperature, concentration or pressure, on a system at equilibrium

c)    Deduce whether changes in concentration, pressure or temperature or the presence of a catalyst affect the value of the equilibrium constant for a reaction

d)    Deduce expressions for equilibrium constants in terms of concentrations, Kc, and partial pressures, Kp

 

e)    Calculate the values of equilibrium constants in terms of concentrations or partial

 

pressures from appropriate data

 

f)    Calculate the quantities present at equilibrium, given appropriate data

 

g)    Describe and explain the conditions used in the Haber process.

 

h)    Understand and use the Bronsted-Lowry theory of acids and bases

 

i)     Explain qualitatively the differences in behaviour between strong and weak acids and bases and the pH values of their aqueous solutions in terms of the extent of dissociation

j)     Explain the terms pH; Ka; pKa; Kw and use them in calculations

 

k)    Calculate [H+(aq)] and pH values for strong and weak acids and strong bases

 

l)     Explain how buffer solutions control pH

 

m)  Calculate the pH of buffer solutions from the given appropriate data

 

n)    Show understanding of, and use, the concept of solubility product, Ksp

 

  • o)    Calculate Ksp from concentrations and vice versa

 

p)    Show understanding of the common ion effect

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

15

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to:

 

a)    Explain and use the terms: rate of reaction; activation energy; catalysis; rate equation; order of reaction; rate constant; half-life of a reaction; rate-determining step

b)    Explain qualitatively, in terms of collisions, the effect of concentration changes on the rate of a reaction

c)    Explain that, in the presence of a catalyst, a reaction has a different mechanism, i.e. one of lower activation energy

d)    Describe enzymes as biological catalysts (proteins) which may have specific activity

 

e)    Construct and use rate equations of the form

 

Rate = k[A]m[B]n

 

with special emphasis on:

 

i)    Deducing the order of a reaction by the initial rates method

 

ii)   Justifying, for zero- and first-order reactions, the order of reaction from concentration-time graphs

iii)  Verifying that a suggested reaction mechanism is consistent with the observed kinetics

iv) Predicting the order that would result from a given reaction mechanism (and vice versa)

 

v)  Calculating an initial rate using concentration data

 

f)    Show understanding that the half-life of a first-order reaction is independent of initial concentration and use the half-life to calculate order of reaction.

g)    Calculate the rate constant from the given data

 

h)    Name a suitable method for studying the rate of a reaction, from given information

 

 

 

B. INORGANIC CHEMISTRY

 

1. PERIODS:

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to:

 

Discuss the variation in the physical properties of elements belonging to period 2 and 3 and to describe and explain the periodicity in the following physical properties of elements.

 

a)    Atomic radius

 

b)    Ionic radius

 

c)    Melting point

 

d)    Boiling point

 

e)    Electrical conductivity

 

f)    Ionization energy

 

 

 

16

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to:

 

Describe and explain the variation in the properties of group II, IV and VII elements

 

from top to bottom with special emphasis on:

 

a)    Reactions of group-II elements with oxygen and water

 

b)    Characteristics of oxides of carbon and silicon

 

c)    Properties of halogens and uses of chlorine in water purification and as bleaching agent

d)    Uses of Nobel gases (group VIII)

 

 

 

3. TRANSITION ELEMENTS:

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to:

 

Discuss the chemistry of transition elements of 3-d series with special emphasis on:

 

 

a)    Electronic configuration

 

b)    Variable oxidation states

 

c)    Use as a catalyst

 

d)    Formation of complexes

 

e)    Colour of transition metal complexes

 

 

4. ELEMENTS OF BIOLOGICAL IMPORTANCE:

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to:

 

a)    Describe the inertness of Nitrogen

 

b)    Manufacture of Ammonia by Haber process

 

c)    Discuss the preparation of Nitric acid and nitrogenous fertilizers

 

d)    Describe the presence of Suphur dioxide in the atmosphere which causes acid rain

 

e)    Describe the manufacture of Sulphuric acid by contact method

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

17

 

1. FUNDAMENTAL PRINCIPLES:

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to:

 

a)    Classify the organic compounds

 

b)    Explain the types of bond fission, homolytic and heterolytic

 

c)    Discuss the types of organic reactions; Polar and free radical

 

d)    Discuss the types of reagents; nucleophile, electrophile and free radicals

 

e)    Explain isomerism; structural and cis-trans

 

f)    Describe and explain condensed structural formula, displayed and skeletal formula

 

g)    Discuss nomenclature of organic compounds with reference to IUPAC names of Alkanes, Alkenes, Alcohols and Acids

 

 

2. HYDROCARBON:

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to:

 

 

Describe the chemistry of Alkanes with emphasis on

 

a)    Combustion

 

b)    Free radical substitution including mechanism

 

Discuss the chemistry of Alkenes with emphasis on

 

a)    Preparation of alkenes by elimination reactions

 

i)    Dehydration of alcohols

 

ii)   Dehydrohalogenation of Alkyl halide

 

b)    Reaction of Alkenes such as

 

i)    Catalytic hydrogenation

 

ii)   Halogenation (Br2 addition to be used as a test of an alkene)

 

iii)  Hydration of alkenes

 

iv) Reaction with HBr with special reference to Markownikoff’s rule

 

v)  Oxidation of alkenes using Bayer’s reagent (cold alkaline KMnO4) and using hot concentrated acidic KMnO4 for cleavage of double bond

 

vi) Polymerization of ethene

 

Discuss chemistry of Benzene with examples

 

a)    Structure of benzene showing the delocalized Π-orbital which causes stability of benzene

b)    Electrolphillic substitution reactions of benzene

 

i)    Nitration including mechanism

 

ii)   Halogenation

 

iii)  Friedel Craft’s reaction

 

 

 

 

18

 

3. ALKYL HALIDES:

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to:

 

a)    Discuss importance of halogenoalkanes in everyday life with special use of CFCs, halothanes, CCl4, CHCl3 and Teflon

 

b)    Reaction of alkyl halides such as:

 

SN-reactions, (Reactions of alcohols with aqueous KOH, KCN in alcohol and with aqueous NH3)

 

Elimination reaction with alcoholic KOH to give alkenes.

 

 

 

4. ALCOHOLS AND PHENOLS:

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to:

 

Discus Alcohols with reference to

 

a)    Classification of alcohols into primary, secondary and tertiary

 

b)    Preparation of ethanol by fermentation process

 

c)    Reaction of alcohol with

 

i)    K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4

 

ii)   PCl5

 

iii)  Na-metal

 

iv) Alkaline aqueous Iodine

 

v)  Esterification

 

vi) Dehydration

 

 

Phenols  
a) Discuss   reactions of phenol with:
  i)   Bromine ii)   HNO3
b) Explain the relative acidity of water, ethanol and phenol

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

19

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to:

 

a)    Describe the structure of aldehyde and ketones

 

b)    Discuss preparation of aldehydes and ketones by oxidation of alcohols

 

c)    Discuss following reactions of aldehydes and ketones

 

i)    Common to both 2,4-DNPH

 

HCN

 

ii)   Reactions in which Aldehydes differs from ketones

 

Oxidation with K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4, Tollen’s reagent and Fehling solution Reduction with sodium boron hydride

 

iii)  Reaction which show presence of CH3CO group in aldehydes and ketones Triiodomethane test (Iodo form test) using alkaline aqueous iodine.

 

 

6. CARBOXYLIC ACID:

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to:

 

a)    Show preparation of ethanoic acid by oxidation of ethanol or by the hydrolysis of CH3CN

 

b)    Discuss the reactions of ethanoic acid with emphasis on:

 

i)    Salt formation

 

ii)   Esterification

 

iii)  Acid chloride formation

 

iv) Amide formation

 

c)    Hydrolysis of amide in basic and acidic medium

 

d)    Describe the strength of organic acids relative to chloro substituted acids

 

 

 

7. AMINO ACIDS:

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to:

 

a)    Describe the general structure of α-amino acids found in proteins

 

b)    Classify the amino acids on the basis of nature of R-group

 

c)    Describe what is meant by essential amino acids

 

d)    Understand peptide bond formation and hydrolysis of polypeptides/protein

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

20

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to describe and explain

 

a)    Addition polymers such as polyethene, polypropene, polystyrene and PVC.

 

b)    Condensation polymers such as polyesters, nylon

 

c)    Structure of proteins

 

d)    Chemistry of carbohydrates

 

e)    Chemistry of lipids

 

f)    Enzymes

 

g)    Structure and function of nucleic acid (DNA & RNA)

 

 

 

9. ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY:

 

In this topic, candidate should be able to

 

a)    Understand causes of water pollution

 

b)    Discuss disposal of solid wastes

 

c)    Understand chemistry and causes of

 

i)    Smog

 

ii)   Acid rain

 

iii)  Ozone layer

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

21

 

F.Sc. and Non-F.Sc.

 

Topic MCQs
   

A. Physical Chemistry

 

1.

Fundamental   concepts

02

     

2.

States   of matter

02

     

3.

Atomic   structure

02

     

4.

Chemical   bonding

02

     

5.

Chemical   energetics

02

     

6.

Solutions

02

     

7.

Electrochemistry

02

     

8.

Chemical   Equilibrium

02

     

9.

Reaction   kinetics

02

     

B. Inorganic Chemistry

 

1.

Periods

02

     

2.

Groups

02

     

3.

Transition   elements

02

     

4.

Elements   of biological importance

04

 

C. Organic Chemistry

 

1.

Fundamental   principles

02

     

2.

Hydrocarbon

02

     

3.

Alkyl   halides

02

     

4.

Alcohols   and Phenols

04

     

5.

Aldehydes   and Ketones

03

     

6.

Carboxylic   acid

03

     

7.

Amino   acids

06

     

8.

Macromolecules

06

     

9.

Environmental   chemistry

02

     
  Total

58

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

22

 

Choose single best option

 

Q.1        The mass spectrum of lead is shown:

 

Y

 

52.3

 

 

 

 

23.6

 

22.6

 

1.5

 

X

 

204      206   207            208

 

What quantities are represented by X-axis and Y-axis?

 

X-axis                    Y-axis

 

A) Atomic number         Relative abundance

 

B) Mass number           Atomic number

 

C) Mass number           Height of peak

 

D) Atomic number        Mass number

 

Q.2        Number of atoms of oxygen in 90g of glucose is (C=12, H=1, O=16):

A) 3.011x1023 C) 6.022x1024
B) 6.022x1023 D) 1.8x1024

 

Q.3        A mixture of 20% NH3, 55% H2 and 25% N2 by volume has a pressure of 9.8x104Nm-2. What is the partial pressure of NH3 in Nm-2?

  A) 1.96x104   C) 2.92x104  
  B)   2.45x104   D)   4.90x104  
Q.4 Density of water (H2O) is   maximum at: C) 40C  
  A) 1000C    
  B) 00C   D) 140C  
Q.5 How  many  total    number  of  unpaired    electrons  are  shown    in  the  electronic  
  configuration of Cr:      
  A) 3   C) 5  
  B) 4   D) 6  
Q.6 Energy of s, p and d sub-shells is in the order:    
  A) s>p>d   C) d>p>s  
  B)   p>s>d   D)   s>p<d  
Q.7 Hydrogen bonding plays a very important role in stabilizing various   structures. In  
  which of the following case hydrogen bonding is not involved?  
  A) Structure of ice   C) Solid state of iodine  
  B)   Secondary structure of protein D)   Double helix structure of DNA  
Q.8 The shape of SnCl2 as   predicted by valence shell electron pair repulsion theory is:  
  A) Linear   C) Tetrahedral  
  B)   Bent   D)   Triangular pyramidal  
Q.9 A correct equation for the enthalpy change of formation of NH3(g) is:  
  A) NH4Cl(s) NH3(g) + HCl(g)    
  B) N2(g)  + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)    
  C)

1

N2(g)  +

3

H2(g) NH3(g)    
         

2                  2

D)  N2O(g)  + 4H2(g)      2NH3(g)  + H2O(l)

 

Q.10      Boiling point of water is 1000C. To a sample of 500g of water 3g of urea (NH2)2CO are added. The boiling point of solution is expected to be (N=14, C=12, O=16, H=1):

A) 1000C C) 99.520C
B) 100.0520C D) 99.000C

 

 

23

 

A)

0.2

C)

0.5

B)

0.3

D) 1.0

 

Q.12      The relevant Eo values for 3 half cells are:

 

Mn3+ + e- Mn2+ Eo =+1.49V
Fe3+  + e- Fe2+ Eo =+0.77V
Co3+ + e- Co2+ Eo =-0.28V

 

Which is the strongest oxidizing agent?  
A) Mn3+ C) Co2+
B) Fe2+ D) Mn2+

 

Q.13      Sulphuric acid is manufactured by contact process. One stage in the contact process involves the reaction between sulphur dioxide and oxygen.

 

2SO2(g)  + O2(g) 2SO3(g) ;  H= -197KJ-1mol
Which statement about this step is true?
A) High temperature favours the C) No catalyst is used in this step
formation   of SO3   D) This process is carried out at 2000C

B)  High pressure favours the formation of SO3

 

Q.14      Kp and Kc for a gaseous reversible chemical reaction may be same or different. Select the reaction for which the two constants have same numerical value:

 

A) N2 + 3H2                  2NH3

 

B) PCl5                       PCl3 + Cl2

 

C) N2 + O2                  2NO

 

D) 2SO3                      2SO2  + O2

 

Q.15      The oxidation of Iodine ion by H2O2 takes place according to the equation,

 

H2O2(aq)  + 2H3O+(aq) + 2I-(aq)     I2(aq) +4H2O(l)

 

The rate equation may be written as:

 

Rate = k[H2O2]x  [H3O+]y  [I-]z

 

This reaction takes place in three steps:

 

Step 1 H2O2 + I- IO-  + H2O
Step 2 IO-

+

H3O+ HIO + H2O
Step 3 HIO

+

H3O+ + I- I2 +2H2O

 

What is the value of x, y and z if step 1 is the rate determining step:

 

 

x

y z

A) 1

1 1
B)

1

0 1
C)

1

2 0

D) 2

1 1

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

24

 

[A]

[B]

Initial

   

Rate(atm

   

min-1)

0.009

0.001

0.1

     

0.018

0.002

0.4

     

0.018

0.001

0.2

     

0.009

0.002

0.2

     

 

Select the rate expression that corresponds to the data:

A) Rate  [A][B] C) Rate  [A]2[B]
B) Rate  [A][B]2 D) Rate  [A]2[B]2

 

Q.17      The periodic variation in a physical property of elements with proton number 1 to 60 is shown in the figure below:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  Which property is shown in the figure?  
  A)   Melting point C)   Boiling point
  B)   Atomic radius D)   First ionisation energy
   
Q.18 Four elements of period-2 are given, select the element with highest   first ionization
  energy:  
  A) B C) N
  B) C D) O
     

Q.19      An element of group IV shows the following properties:

 

i       It is high melting.

ii      It is lubricant.

iii     It is used as an electrical conductor.

 

  What could be the substance?  
  A) Silicon C) Tin
  B)   Graphite D)   Lead
Q.20 Disinfection of water by chlorine is avoided if organic matter like   phenol or humic
  acid is present in water. It is due to the formation of toxic and   carcinogenic products
  with chlorine. Chlorine combines with humic acid to form:
  A) Chloramines C) Chloroform
  B)   Nitrogen trichloride D)   Carbon tetrachloride

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

25

 

below:

 

λ (nm)

Colour of complex

Absorbed

 

400

Green-Yellow

   

450

Yellow

   

490

Red

   

580

Blue

   

650

Green

   

 

The visible spectrum of a complex is shown. What is the colour of complex observed?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  A)   Green-Yellow C)   Blue
  B)   Yellow D) Red
Q.22 Transition element complexes show colour. The   colour shown by different elements is
  different due to:  
  A) Different number of shells C) Absorbance of same wavelength
  B) Energy difference of d-orbitals from visible light
  varies   with nature of ligand D)   Different geometry of complexes
Q.23 What is not the use of H2SO4:  
  A) Paint and pigments C) Food preservation
  B)   Detergents D) Dye   stuff
Q.24 Fertility of acidic soil is restored by adding:  
  A) Lime C) Baking soda
  B)   Caustic soda D)   Milk of magnesia

 

Q.25      Which pair of the following compounds is optically active:

  1. i.     H2N—CH2—CO2H
  2. ii.     HOCH2—CH2—CO2H
  3. iii.     CH3—CH(OH)—CO2H

 

HO

 

  1. iv.     HO   CH—CH2—NH—CH3

 

    OH
A) 1 and   2 C) 3   and 4
B) 2 and   3 D) 1 and 4

 

Q.26      Which one of the following reagents is not an electrophile:

A) NO2+ C) SO3
B) CH3+ D) CH3OH

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

26

 

addition products are formed. Which of the following is not a possible product:

A) CH2—CH2

 

Br

Br

B) CH2—CH2

       
Br

OH

 

C) CH2—CH2

 

Br      Cl

 

D)  CH2—CH2 Cl OH

 

Q.28 Chlorination of methane in the presence of   sunlight involves mechanism of:
  A) Electrophilic substitution C) Free radical addition
  B) Free   radical substitution D)   Free radical alkylation

 

Q.29 Alkaline hydrolysis of bromoethane takes place by SN2 mechanisms as given below:  
    CH3          

CH3

CH3  
                       
  OH- +           OH------C-------Br OH—CH2  + Br-  
           
     
    δ+CH2—Brδ-         H   H      
                         
                 

Intermediate

     
  What is charge on the intermediate?          
  A) +2             C) -1  
  B) +1             D) -2  
Q.30 Nucleophilic substitution of tertiary alkyl halide gives tertiary   alcohol. What is the  
  type of this reaction:                    
  A) SN1             C) Addition-elimination  
  B) SN2             D) Elimination-addition  
            OH          
        Cl         Cl          
                         
                     
Q.31 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol         is strongest antiseptic present in Dettol. Which   of the  
                       
                         
            Cl          
  following reagent is suitable for its preparation from phenol:  
  A) PCl5             C) HCl  
  B)   SOCl2             D) Cl2  
Q.32 Rectified spirit contains 95% ethanol in water. It is converted to   absolute alcohol by:  
  A) Fractional distillation             C) Treating with lime  
  B) Filtration             D)   Steam distillation  

 

Q.33      Vanillin is a constituent of the vanilla bean and has the structure:

 

OH

 

      OCH3  
       
  CHO (Vanillin)  
   
     
Which of the following reagent will not react with vanillin?  
A) 2,4-Dinitrophenyl hydrazine C) Br2 in CCl4  
B)   [Ag(NH3)2]+ (Tollen’s   reagent) D) Aqueous NaOH + I2  

 

Q.34      Acetaldehyde and acetone can be distinguished by:

 

A) Tollen’s test C) Bayer’s test
B) Iodoform   test D) 2,4 DNPH test

 

 

27

 

Step 1     Step 2
CH3—CHO CH3—CH—CN CH3—CH—CO2H
         
  OH OH
What is the reagent and condition for the two steps?
A) HCN, Acid hydrolysis     C) HCN, basic hydrolysis
B) NaCN in alcohol, oxidation with D) NaCN in alcohol, reduction Sn+HCl
H2O2        
Q.36   Highest acid strength   in aqueous medium is associated with:
A) CH3COOH     C) Cl2CHCOOH
B)   ClCH2COOH     D) CH3—CH2—COOH

 

Q.37 20 α-amino acids found in protein are bifunctional compounds having   at least a
  carboxylic acid group and an amino group. Which of the following   α-amino acid has
  the secondary amino group in its structure?  
  A) Valine C) Proline
  B)   Alanine D)   Glycine
Q.38 On hydrolysis, protein yield amino acids. In all proteins about 20   different amino
  acids are found. Which is not a characteristic property of these 20   amino acids?
  A) All are optically active C) Proline has secondary amino group
  B) Those optically active have L- at 2-position
  configuration D)   They decompose before melting
Q.39 When an alkali is added to the aqueous solution of an amino acid,   net charge on a
  molecule of amino acid is:  
  A) +ve C) Zero
  B) –ve D) May   be +ve or -ve
Q.40 A reaction of an addition polymer is shown:  

 

 

 

 

 

What is the structure of the monomer?

 

A)                  CH2—CH3

 

 

B)                  CH=CH2

 

 

C)                  C Ξ CH

 

 

 

D)                  CH=CH

 

Q.41 Which of the following functional groups is present in fats?
  A) Carboxylic acid C) Alcohol
  B)   Aldehyde or ketone D) Ester
Q.42 Starch is a mixture of two polysaccharides, amylase and amylopectin.   Amylase has
  linear structure where as amylopectin is branched. In amylopectin,   branching is due
  to:      
  A) α-1,4 glycosidic linkage C) α-1,6 glycosidic linkage
  B) -1,4 glycosidic linkage D)  -1,6 glycosidic linkage
Q.43 Natural rain water has a pH of 5.6. What is the pH of the acid rain?
  A) 1-2 C) 8-9
  B) 6-7 D) 4-5
Q.44 Four  statements  regarding    the  characteristics  of    ozone  are  given, select  the
  INCORRECT:    
  A) Ozone is produced in most of the C) It reduces the durability of paint
    tropical   regions D) It is   useful to plants

B)  In polar regions it causes various health problems

 

28

 

STRUCTURE OF THE SYLLABUS (2013)

 

F.Sc. and Non-F.Sc.

 

The English section shall consist of four parts:

 

Part I:

 

It will be comprised of Four Questions in which the candidate will have to select the appropriate/suitable word from the given alternatives.

 

Part II:

 

It will contain sentences with grammatical errors and the candidate will have to identify the error. There will be Six Questions from this part.

 

Part III:

 

There will be Ten Questions consisting of a list of Four sentences each. The candidate will have to choose the grammatically correct sentence out of the given four options.

 

Part IV:

 

In this part, the candidate will be asked to choose the right synonyms. Four options will be given and He/She will have to choose the most appropriate one. There will be Ten Questions from this part.

 

Essential Word Power

 

 

1. Acupuncture   28. Amazon   55. Ascetic
2. Aberration   29. Ambulatory   56. Asgard
3. Abnegate   30. Ameliorate   57. Askance
4. Aboriginal   31. Amenities   58. Aspersion
5. Absolution   32. Amorphous   59. Assimilate
6. Abstruse   33. Ampere   60. Assume
7. Acclimate   34. Analogue   61. Atrophy
8. Accolade   35. Anaphylactic   62. Attire
9. Accrue   36. Aneurysm   63. Audacious
10. Acquiesce   37. Angina   64. August
11. Actuary   38. Anomaly   65. Auspicious
12. Acumen   39. Anomie   66. Avatar
13. Adage   40. Antagonist   67. Avid
14. Adamantine   41. Antibody   68. Avoirdupois
15. Addled   42. Apocryphal   69. Bacchanal
16. Admonition   43. Apprehension   70. Baedeker
17. Adonis   44. Aquaplane   71. Balk
18. Adroitness   45. Aquifer   72. Bamboozle
19. Aerobic- exercise   46. Arbiter   73. Bantam
20. Aerodynamic   47. Arboreal   74. Barbaric
21. Affect   48. Arcane   75. Basilica
22. Affinity   49. Archives   76. Batik
23. Afflatus   50. Argosy   77. Batter
24. Akimbo   51. Aria   78. Battery
25. Alacrity   52. Armada   79. Bauble
26. Allay   53. Articulated   80. Bayou
27. Altruistic   54. Artifice   81. Beguile

 

 

29

 

               
84. Benediction   143. Chromosome   202. Cygnet
85. Beneficence   144. Churn   203. Cynical
86. Benign   145. Chutzpah   204. Dacha
87. Bequeath   146. Clamorous   205. Dale
88. Berate   147. Claret   206. Dam
89. Berm   148. Classic   207. Dappled
90. Beset   149. Classical   208. Dark horse
91. Bifurcated   150. Clement   209. Dead-ender
92. Bistro   151. Close   210. Deadhead
93. Blandish   152. Cloud nine   211. Debility
94. Blasphemous   153. Coast   212. Debunk
95. Blathering   154. Cobble   213. Debut
96. Blaze   155. Coccyx   214. Decant
97. Bloom   156. Coercive   215. Decathlon
98. Bonk   157. Coif   216. Decelerate
99. Bonsai   158. Collage   217. Decorum
100. Botanicals   159. Comatose   218. Decry
101. Bouquet   160. Comely   219. Defenestration
102. Bowdlerize   161. Commiserate   220. Deferential
103. Braille   162. Commute   221. Deferment
104. Brambles   163. Compact   222. Delegate
105. Brassy   164. Compatible   223. Delta
106. Bravura   165. Complacent   224. Demographics
107. Bray   166. Concerted   225. Demure
108. Brio   167. Condone   226. Denomination
109. Broach   168. Conciliatory   227. Deracinate
110. Broadside   169. Confiscatory   228. Desiccate
111. Buckle   170. Confound   229. Deuce
112. Buoyant   171. Congeal.   230. Devious
113. Burgeoning   172. Congruent   231. Dexter
114. Cachet   173. Contemporary   232. Diaspora
115. Caesarean   174. Contiguous   233. Diffidence
116. Caliph   175. Contradow   234. Diffident
117. Calisthenics   176. Contravention   235. Diligence
118. Camber   177. Contrive   236. Diligent
119. Cameo   178. Contumely   237. Diocese
120. Candelabra   179. Contusion   238. Diorama
121. Capital   180. Copacetic   239. Diptych
122. Capsule   181. Coquetry   240. Discombobulate
123. Carapace   182. Cordial   241. Discourse
124. Cardigan   183. Cordiality   242. Discrepancy
125. Career   184. Corked   243. Discretion
126. Caricature   185. Corollary   244. Disdain
127. Cartographer   186. Corpuscle   245. Disingenuous
128. Cast   187. Corroborating   246. Dissension
129. Catacomb   188. Cosset   247. Dissent
130. Catalyst   189. Coterie   248. Dissenter
131. Catharsis   190. Covert   249. Dissonance
132. Caulk   191. Coveted   250. Diva
133. Cause célèbre   192. Crass   251. Divagate
134. Cay   193. Craven   252. Divulge
135. Centennial   194. Crenelate   253. Docent
136. Cerberus   195. Crescendo   254. Dote
137. Chassis   196. Crescent   255. Downy
138. Chastise   197. Criterion   256. Droll
139. Chiaroscuro   198. Cue   257. Dryad
140. Chicane   199. Cul-de-sac   258. Dulcet

 

 

 

30

 

                 
261. Edda   320. Figment   378. Hydra  
262. Effect   321. Filigree   379. Hypertension  
263. Effervescent   322. Finagle   380. Hypothermia  
264. El dorado   323. Fistmele   381. Ichor  
265. Electrolytes   324. Flaunt   382. Idealist  
266. Elicit   325. Flibbertigibbet   383. Ilk  
267. Elucidate   326. Florid   384. Illicit  
268. Elusive   327. Flotsam and   385. Imam  
269. Embed     jetsam   386. Immobilize  
270. Embedded   328. Flux   387. Immolate  
271. Emblazon   329. Fop   388. Impediment  
272. Emblematic   330. Forswear   389. Impending  
273. Emboss   331. Frowsy   390. Impetuous  
274. Emit   332. Funicular   391. Impetus  
275. Empathy   333. Gable   392. Impinge  
276. Emulate   334. Galoot   393. Implacable  
277. Encomium   335. Galvanize   394. Importune  
278. Encumber   336. Gambit   395. Imprecation  
279. Encyclical   337. Garnish   396. Impregnable  
280. Enhance   338. Gaudy   397. Improvise  
281. Ennui   339. Genocide   398. Impugn  
282. Epicenter   340. Geodesic   399. Impute  
283. Equipoise   341. Gesticulate   400. Inanity  
284. Equivocate   342. Gesundheit   401. Incarnate  
285. Ergometer   343. Gild   402. Incentive  
286. Eschew   344. Glaucoma   403. Incisive  
287. Espalier   345. Glaze   404. Inculcate  
288. Ethic   346. Glib   405. Indigent  
289. Etude   347. Glucose   406. Ineradicable  
290. Euphonious   348. Gradient   407. Inertia  
291. Evanescent   349. Grapevine   408. Infallible  
292. Evasive   350. Green   409. Infidel  
293. Evocative   351. Gridlock   410. Infraction  
294. Excavate   352. Guileless   411. Infusion  
295. Execrable   353. Guise   412. Inherent  
296. Exhortation   354. Gull   413. Iniquity  
297. Exonerate   355. Guru   414. Innocuous  
298. Exploitation   356. Habiliments   415. Innovate  
299. Extemporaneous   357. Hackles   416. Inoculate  
300. Extrapolate   358. Hail   417. Inordinate  
301. Extricate   359. Halcyon   418. Inquisition  
302. Extrinsic   360. Hallux   419. Inscrutable  
303. Fabricate   361. Hammer and   420. Inter  
304. Facile     tongs   421. Intransigent  
305. Facilitate   362. Harangue   422. Intrinsic  
306. Fait accompli   363. Hawk   423. Irrefutable  
307. Fakir   364. Hector   424. Isotroplc  
308. Fartlek   365. Heinous   425. Itinerant  
      366. Hem and haw        
309. Fascia   426. Jackknife  
310. Fateful   367. Herbicide   427. Jaded  
311. Faux   368. Herculean   428. Jargon  
312. Fawning   369. Hermetic   429. Jejune  
313. Feasible   370. Heterogeneous   430. Jell  
314. Feckless   371. Hiatus   431. Jeopardy  
315. Felicitous   372. Holistic- medicine   432. Jeremiad  
      373. Homeopathy        
316. Felicity   433. Jettison  
317. Feral   374. Hone   434. Jig  
      375. Horse latitudes        
        31        

 

 

               
437. Jitney   496. Medley   555. Opportune
438. Jocular   497. Melange   556. Optimum
439. Jocund   498. Memento   557. Orb
440. Joist   499. Menial   558. Origami
441. Journeyman   500. Mentor   559. Orthodox
442. Joust   501. Meritorious   560. Orthotic
443. Jubilee   502. Mesa   561. Otiose
444. Judicial   503. Mesmerize   562. Overdraft
445. Judicious   504. Metabolism   563. Oxymoron
446. Juggernaut   505. Microcosm   564. Pad
447. Juncture   506. Militate   565. Paddy
448. Junket   507. Minatory   566. Palatable
449. Junta   508. Mirth   567. Palaver
450. Justify   509. Misanthropy   568. Palazzo
451. Juxtapose   510. Misapprehension   569. Palpitation
452. Kahuna   511. Mitigation   570. Pampas
453. Ken   512. Modish   571. Pan
454. Kerfuffle   513. Monolithic   572. Pandemic
455. Kibitz   514. Monotheism   573. Paper tiger
456. Kiln   515. Montage   574. Papier-mache
457. Kismet   516. Moot   575. Par
458. Lacerating   517. Morass   576. Paradox
459. Laconic   518. Moratorium   577. Paragon
460. Lacunae   519. Mordant   578. Paramedic
461. Laity   520. Mosaic   579. Parameter
462. Lampoon   521. Mosey   580. Parcel
463. Lapidary   522. Mote   581. Pare
464. Largess   523. Motif   582. Parlous
465. Latent   524. Motley   583. Paroxysm
466. Lathe   525. Mountebank   584. Pathos
467. Laud   526. Mulct   585. Patisserie
468. Lee   527. Mumbo jumbo   586. Peccadillo
469. Leitmotif   528. Murky   587. Pedestrian
470. Lemming   529. Muse   588. Peerless
471. Liement   530. Must   589. Pending
472. Ligament   531. Myriad   590. Pendulous
473. Ligature   532. Nadir   591. Peninsula
474. Lineage   533. Nary   592. Penultimate
475. Lion's share   534. Née   593. Perfidious
476. Lipid   535. Neologism   594. Perfidy
477. Lissome   536. Nexus   595. Perfunctory
478. Litter   537. Nibelung   596. Perimeter
479. Liturgy   538. Niche   597. Peripheral
480. Lodestar   539. Nike   598. Periphery
481. Lucidity   540. Nip and tuck   599. Permeate
482. Lulu   541. Non sequitur   600. Permutation
483. Macrame   542. Nuance   601. Peroration
484. Magnanimous   543. Nuclear family   602. Perpetuate
485. Magnum   544. Obeisance   603. Perseverance
486. Malevolence   545. Obi   604. Persnickety
487. Mandala   546. Obliterate   605. Perspicacious
488. Maneuver   547. Obsequious   606. Phalanx
489. Manicured   548. Obstreperous   607. Phlegmatic
490. Manifestation   549. Obtuse   608. Picayune
491. Mansard   550. Odometer   609. Piety
492. Matriculation   551. Onerous   610. Pilaster
493. Mausoleum   552. Onslaught   611. Placate

 

 

 

32

 

               
614. Platonic   673. Reconnoitre   732. Sidle
615. Plethora   674. Rectify   733. Sierra
616. Pollex   675. Red herring   734. Siesta
617. Polyunsaturated   676. Redolent   735. Silhouette
618. Pomp   677. Regatta   736. Simony
619. Porcinely   678. Regime   737. Sinecure
620. Portmanteau   679. Regnant   738. Singe
621. Portray   680. Relegate   739. Sisyphean
622. Postulate   681. Relief   740. Skeptical
623. Potable   682. Remedial   741. Skew
624. Potpourri   683. Renege   742. Skittish
625. Precipitate   684. Renovate   743. Smithereens
626. Précis   685. Repute   744. Smorgasbord
627. Preclude   686. Resonance   745. Snide
628. Precursor   687. Resound   746. Sojourn
629. Predatory   688. Restitution   747. Solvent
630. Pre-emptive   689. Resuscitate   748. Somatic
631. Premise   690. Retrench   749. Sophistry
632. Premonition   691. Riff   750. Spa
633. Preplate   692. Robust   751. Specious
634. Prevail   693. Roil   752. Specter
635. Prevalent   694. Rope-a-dope   753. Splotch
636. Prig   695. Roster   754. Spurious
637. Primal   696. Ruddy   755. Squander
638. Privation   697. Rue   756. Stagftation
639. Pro forma   698. Ruminant   757. Stalwart
640. Procrastinate   699. Sagacity   758. Stanch
641. Procure   700. Sampan   759. Staples
642. Prodigious   701. Sampler   760. Static
643. Prolific   702. Sanatorium   761. Stay
644. Proponent   703. Sanctity   762. Stentorian
645. Proscription   704. Sandbagger   763. Steppe
646. Provender   705. Sanguine   764. Sticky wicket
647. Provident   706. Sarong   765. Stilted
648. Provocative   707. Satiate   766. Stimuli
649. Prowess   708. Satire   767. Stipulate
650. Prune   709. Scam   768. Stoicism
651. Purchase   710. Sceptic   769. Stratagem
652. Putrid   711. Sciatica   770. Subdivision
653. Quadriceps   712. Score   771. Succumb
654. Quagmire   713. Scorned   772. Sui generis
655. Quarter   714. Scruple   773. Sunder
656. Queasy   715. Scrutinize   774. Superficial
657. Querulous   716. Scut work   775. Superfluous
658. Queue   717. Scuttle   776. Supposition
659. Quintessential   718. Sear   777. Surplice
660. Quintile   719. Sec   778. Surrealism
661. Quorum   720. Sedate   779. Surrealistic
662. Radiant   721. Seder   780. Sward
663. Rakish   722. Sediment   781. Swivel
664. Rambunctious   723. Segment   782. Sycophantic
665. Rapacious   724. Seminary   783. Syllogism
666. Rapport   725. Senescent   784. Symbiosis
667. Raze   726. Sensibility   785. Table d'hote
668. Reactionary   727. Septic   786. Taboo
669. Recapitulate   728. Serendipity   787. Tactile
670. Reciprocal   729. Seriatim   788. Tai chi

 

 

 

33

 

               
791. Tank   820. Uncanny   849. Vista
792. Tariff   821. Undergird   850. Viticulture
793. Taxidermy   822. Understeer   851. Vituperative
794. Tchotchkes   823. Undulate   852. Vociferous
795. Telepathy   824. Undulating   853. Voguism
796. Temperance   825. Unmitigated   854. Voracious
797. Tenacious   826. Unregenerate   855. Voraciousness
798. Tessellate   827. Urbane   856. Vortex
799. Therapeutic   828. Vale   857. Vulcanize
800. Tinge   829. Valedictory   858. Wadi
801. Tipping point   830. Vanquish   859. Wan
802. Titan   831. Vascular   860. Wheedle
803. Torpid   832. Vaud   861. Whiplash
804. Totem   833. Vegetate   862. Woof
805. Totemic   834. Velodrome   863. Wry
806. Traction   835. Venality   864. Wunderkind
807. Tranquil   836. Vendetta   865. Xanadu
808. Transcend   837. Veneer   866. Xanthic
809. Transient   838. Venerable   867. Xanthippe
810. Transmute   839. Venomous   868. Xenophobic
811. Trash talk   840. Ventricle   869. Xeric
812. Treacly   841. Veracity   870. Xyloid
813. Trepidation   842. Vertex   871. Yarmulke
814. Triage   843. Verve   872. Yin and yang
815. Trifle   844. Viability      
816. Trilogy   845. Vintage      
817. Trundle   846. Vintner      

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

34

 

Choose single best option

 

Q.1 He was _______________ of all valuable possessions.
  A) Robbed. C) Pinched.
  B)   Stolen. D)   Established.
Q.2 The presence of armed guards ____________ us from   doing anything disruptive.
  A) Defeated. C) Irritated.
  B)   Excited. D)   Prevented.
Q.3 Our flight was _____________ from Lahore to Islamabad airport.
  A) Diverted. C) Deflected.
  B)   Reflected. D)   Shifted.
Q.4 I am _____________ forward to our picnic scheduled in next month.
  A) Looking. C) Seeing.
  B)   Planning. D)   Going.

 

SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to indentify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the bubble / circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response form.

 

Q.5 They did not guess how closely he had kept in touch with across the road. A B C D

 

Q.6 He proved that if only germs were excluded of wounds, inflammation was averted. A B C D

 

 

Q.7 The man felt his hair flutter and the tissues of his body drew tight as if he were standing at the A B C

 

centre of a vacuum. D

 

Q.8 He came to the hurdles that he remember, over which once he had one so easy a victory. A B C D

 

 

In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the bubble / circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.

 

Q.9

 

A)  He lacked both the training and the equipment needed in the job.

B)  He lacked both the training and the equipment needed by the job.

C)  He lacked both the training and the equipment needed on the job.

D)  He lacked both the training and the equipment needed for the job.

 

Q.10

 

A)  They tried to pacify him for kindness and affection.

B)  They tried to pacify him in kindness and affection.

C)  They tried to pacify him by kindness and affection.

D)  They tried to pacify him with kindness and affection.

 

Q.11

 

A)  Then he sat down in corner and remained queit.

B)  Then he sat down in corner and remained quite.

C)  Then he sat down in corner and remain quiet.

D)  Then he sat down in corner and remained quiet.

 

Q.12

 

A)  He was drenched with the hotness of his fear.

B)  He was drenched in the hotness of his fear.

C)  He was drenched by the hotness of his fear.

D)  He was drenched off the hotness of his fear.

 

 

35

 

and fill the appropriate Bubble / Circle on the MCQ Response Form.

 

Q.13 VEXING  
  A) Annoying C) Viable
  B)   Aggressive D)   Waxy
Q.14 VAGUE  
  A) Respectful C) Warlock
  B)   Uncertain D)   Snow white
Q.15 MANGLED  
  A) Dodged C) Indisputable
  B)   Grained D)   Damaged
Q.16 PRODIGIOUS  
  A) Productive C) Prudential
  B)   Enormous D)   Waddle
Q.17 ASTOUNDED  
  A) Shocked C) Assured
  B)   Discarded D)   Attracted
Q.18 SAGACITY  
  A) Foolishness C) Onions
  B)   Large City D)   Wisdom
Q.19 GRIM  
  A) Gratis C) Severe
  B)   Restless D)   Grater
Q.20 INDOLENTLY  
  A) Lazily C) Ideally
  B)   Indecently D)   Gaily
Q.21 PERISH  
  A) Furious C) Secret
  B)   Come to death D)   Frustrated
Q.22 DOZE  
  A) Dogged C) Sleep
  B)   Diet D) Medicine to be taken

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

36

 

STRUCTURE OF THE SYLLABUS (2013)

 

F.Sc. and Non-F.Sc.

 

TABLE OF CONTENTS

 

  1. Introduction to Biology

 

  1. Cell Biology

 

  1. Biological Molecules

 

4. Microbiology

 

5. Kingdom Animalia and Plantae

 

6. Human Physiology

 

7. Bioenergetics

 

8. Biotechnology

 

  1. Ecosystem

 

10. Evolution and Genetics

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

37

 

Content

 

Branches of Biology

 

Learning outcomes:

 

a) Define the following terms:

 

Ecology,  Physiology,  Histology,  Genetics,  Zoogeography,  Molecular  Biology,

 

Microbiology, Marine and Fresh water Biology, Biotechnology, Parasitology.

 

b)    What are the various levels of Biological organization starting with atomic and subatomic levels to community level?

 

c)    Define the following terms:

 

Transgenic plants, Cloning, Biological control, Biopesticides, Pasteurization, Disease Control (Preventive measure, Vaccinization, Drug therapy)

 

 

 

2. CELL BIOLOGY:

 

Content

 

Cell structure

 

Structure and Function of cellular organelles

 

Cell division

 

Learning outcomes:

 

a)    Compare the structure of typical animal and plant cell

 

b)    Compare and contrast the structure of Prokaryotic cell with Eukaryotic cells

 

c)    Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane and transportation (diffusion, facilitated diffusion, active and passive transport), endocytosis and exocytosis.

d)    Outline the structure and function of the following organelles:

 

Nucleus, Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, Mitochondria, Centrioles, Ribosomes

e)    Explain Mitosis, what is its significance?

 

f)    What is Meiosis, describe it in detail.

 

g)    Describe Meiotic errors (Down’s syndrome, Klinefelter’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome)

h)    Discuss the terms Karyokinesis and Cytokinesis;

 

i)     Discuss and explain:

 

Uncontrolled cell division (cancer) Programmed cell death (Apoptosis) Necrosis

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

38

 

Content

 

Carbohydrate

 

Proteins

 

Lipids

 

Nucleic acids

 

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)

 

Ribonucleic acid (RNA)

 

Enzymes

 

Learning outcomes:

 

a)    Discuss carbohydrates: Monosaccharides (Glucose), Oligosaccharides (Cane sugar, sucrose), Polysaccharides (Starches)

b)    Describe Proteins: Amino acids, Primary, Secondary, Tertiary and Quaternary structure of proteins

 

c)    Describe Lipids: Acylglyceroles, waxes, Phospholipids, Terpenoids

 

d)    Describe the structure along its back bone composition and function of DNA as hereditary material, Replication of DNA (Semi-conservative), Role of triplet codons, Transcription (making up of mRNA), Translation (protein synthesis: role of ribosomes, mRNA, tRNA)

e)    Give the structure and types of RNA (mRNA, rRNA, tRNA)

 

f)    What is enzyme and its role in reducing activation energy?

 

g) Define the following terms:

 

Enzymes, Coenzyme, Co-factor, Prosthetic group, Apoenzyme and Holoenzyme

 

h)    Explain the mode/mechanism of enzyme action

 

i)     Describe the effects of temperature, pH, enzyme concentration and substrate concentration on the rate of enzyme catalysed reaction

j)     Explain the effects of reversible and irreversible, competitive and non-competitive inhibitors on the rate of enzyme activity

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

39

 

Virus

 

Bacteria

 

Fungi

 

Learning outcomes

 

a)    Which are the viral diseases in humans?

 

b)    Reteroviruses and Acquired Immunodeficiency diseases

 

c)    Describe the Life cycle of Bacteriophage (in detail with its all steps) including: Lytic cycle

 

Lysogenic cycle

 

d)    Describe the structure and types of bacteria

 

e)    Discuss in detail:

 

Gram +ve bacteria

 

Gram –ve bacteria Nutrition in bacteria

 

f)    What are the uses and misuses of antibiotics?

 

g)    What are molds (fungi)? How they are useful and harmful to mankind, give examples.

h)    Describe the Life cycle of fungus (Rhizopus).

 

 

 

 

5. KINGDOM ANIMALIA AND PLANTAE:

 

Content

 

Kingdom Animalia (phyla)

 

Kingdom Plantae

 

Learning outcomes:

 

a)    Porifera (with respect to their capacity to regenerate)

 

b)    Coelenterata (coral reefs as habitat for sea animals)

 

c)    Platyhelminthes (Harmful effects on human beings) with examples

 

d)    Ascheliminthes (Infection in humans) with examples

 

e)    Arthropoda (Economic importance of Arthropods and harmful impacts on Man)

 

f)    Define the following terms:

 

Coelomata, Acoelomata, Pseudocoele, Radiata, Bilateria, Diploblastic and Triploblastic organization.

 

g)    Economic importance of families with reference to food and other usefulness: Cassia

 

Solanaceae Gramineae

 

 

 

 

 

 

40

 

Content

 

a)    Digestive System

 

b)    Gas exchange and Transportation

 

c)    Excretion and Osmoregulation

 

d)    Nervous System

 

e)    Reproduction

 

f)     Support and Movement

 

g)    Hormonal Control (Endocrine Glands)

 

h)    Immunity

 

Learning outcomes:

 

a)   Digestive System:

 

Anatomy of digestive system and specify the digestion in:

 

-  Oral cavity (role of teeth, tongue, saliva and enzymes)

 

-  Stomach (enzymes)

 

-  Small intestine

 

-  Large intestine

 

b)   Gas exchange and Transportation:

 

Anatomy of respiratory system (nostrils, trachea, lungs) Explain the term breathing

 

Discuss Blood composition, lymph, structure of heart, carriage of oxygen and carbon dioxide

 

c)    Excretion and Osmoregulation:

 

Describe the structure of kidney and its functions with respect to homeostasis What are Kidney problems and cures?

 

-  Kidney stones, lithotripsy, kidney transplant, dialysis, renal failure What do you understand by the term Homeostasis?

 

d)   Nervous System:

 

What is Nervous system and its types?

 

Explain CNS (Central Nervous System) including forebrain, mid brain, hind brain and spinal cord

 

Explain PNS (Peripheral Nervous System) and its types (Autonomic and Sympathetic Nervous System)

 

Neurons (Associative, motor and sensory neuron)

 

Discuss the Nervous disorders (Parkinson’s disease, Epilepsy and Alzheimer’s disease)

 

What do you understand by Biological clock and circadian Rhythms?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

41

 

Explain the Reproductive system in male in detail

 

Explain the Reproductive system in female / Menstrual cycle Explain:

 

-  Spermatogenesis

 

-  Oogenesis

 

Discuss the following Diseases in detail which are sexually transmitted:

 

-      Gonorrhea, Syphilis, Genital Herpes, AIDS and how these diseases can be controlled (treatment is not required)

f)    Support and Movement:

 

Explain the role of Human skeleton and skeletal muscles in locomotion Explain the process of muscle contraction

 

What is Muscle fatigue, Tetani, Cramps?

 

Describe the structure and functions of involuntary, voluntary and cardiac muscles

 

g)   Hormonal control (Endocrine glands):

 

What are hormones?

 

Describe Hypothalamus with its hormones.

 

Describe Pituitary gland with hormones secreted from its Anterior, Median and Posterior lobe

 

Describe adrenal gland with its hormones. What are Islets of langerhans?

 

What are the hormones of alimentary canal (Gastrin, secretin)? The hormones of ovaries and testes

 

h)   Immunity:

 

Immune system and define its components:

 

-  Antigen

 

-  Antibody (structure of antibody)

 

-  Lymphocytes (B and T cells)

 

What is cell mediated response and humoral immune response? Types of Immunity:

 

-  Active immunity

 

-  Passive immunity

 

What do you mean by vaccination?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

42

 

Content

 

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration

 

Learning outcomes

 

a)    Photosynthetic pigments and their absorption spectrum

 

b)    Light dependent stage

 

c)    Light independent stage

 

d)    Describe the respiration at cellular level including: Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, Electron Transport Chain

 

 

8. BIOTECHNOLOGY:

 

Content

 

DNA technology

 

Learning outcomes

 

a)    Explain Recombinant DNA Technology

 

b)    Discuss Polymerase Chain Reaction (detailed procedure)

 

c)    What do you understand by the following terms: Gene therapy

 

Transgenic animals

 

 

9. ECOSYSTEM:

 

Content

Components of Ecosystem

Biological succession

 

Energy flow in ecosystem

 

Impacts of Human activity on ecosystem

 

Learning outcomes:

 

a)    Abiotic and biotic components of ecosystem

 

b)    What is succession, give various stages of succession on land.

 

c)    Explain the following terms:

 

Predation, parasitism, symbiosis, mutualism, commensalism, grazing

 

d)    Describe the flow of energy in an ecosystem Food chain

 

Food web

 

e)    What is the significance of Human activity on ecosystem as population, deforestation, ozone depletion, atmospheric pollution, Green house effect, industrial effluents (insecticides and herbicides).

 

 

 

 

 

43

 

Content

 

Darwin’s theory

 

Lamarck’s theory

 

Evidences of evolution

 

Genetics

 

 

Learning outcomes

 

a)    Theory of Darwin and Lamarck, also discuss the merits and demerits

 

b)    Evidences of evolution from paleontology and comparative embryology

 

c)    Sex determination and sex linkage in humans

 

d)    Define the following terms:

 

Mutations, Epistasis, Gene, Allele, Multiple allele, Pleiotropy.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

44

 

(For F.Sc. and Non-F.Sc.)

 

  Topic MCQs
     
1. Introduction to Biology

04

     
2. Cell Biology

10

     
3. Biological Molecules  
     
a) Carbohydrates

02

     
b) Proteins

01

     
c) Lipids

01

     
d) Nucleic   Acids

01

     
e) Enzymes

04

     
4. Microbiology  
     
a) Virus

01

     
b) Bacteria

02

     
c) Fungi

01

     
5. Kingdom Animalia and Plantae

05

     
  1. 6.     Human Physiology

 

a) Digestive   System

04

     
b) Gas   exchange and Transportation

04

     
c) Excretion   and Osmoregulation

05

     
d) Nervous   System

04

     
e) Reproduction

05

     
f) Support   and Movement

05

     
g) Hormonal   Control (Endocrine Glands)

04

     
h) Immunity

05

     
7. Bioenergetics

05

     
8. Biotechnology

05

     
9. Ecosystem

05

   
10. Evolution and Genetics

05

     
  Total

88

     

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

45

 

Choose single best option

 

Q.1 The branch of biology that deals with cell functions is called:
  A) Histology. C) Molecular biology.
  B)   Physiology. D)   Microbiology.
Q.2 Different tissues having related functions together form:
  A) Organ. C) Organelles.
  B) Individual. D)   Molecules.
Q.3 Statement made by a scientist that may or may not be true is:
  A) Theory. C) Scientific law.
  B)   Hypothesis. D)   Statement.
Q.4 The method by which pests are destroyed by using some living   organisms is called:
  A) Bio-pesticide. C) Biological control.
  B)   Integrated management. D)   Pasteurization.
Q.5 Robert Hook was the first person to see cells in:  
  A) Various plants. C) Fungi.
  B)   Animals. D)   Cork.
Q.6 The concept “OMNIS cellula-e-cellala” means that, new cells are   formed from:
  A) Non living materials. C) Pre-existing living cells.
  B)   Dead organic matter. D) As   the result of chemical reactions.
Q.7 In generalized plant cell the nucleus is:  
  A) Present in middle of the cell. C) Absent.
  B) Displaced to the side of the cell. D) Modified into endoplasmic
      reticulum.
Q.8 Plasma membrane is found in the cells of:  
  A) Animals only. C) Both in plants and animals.
  B) Plants   only. D)   Bacteria only.
Q.9 The semicircular channels and system of tubes found in cytoplasm are   known as:
  A) Ribosomes. C) Endoplasmic reticulum.
  B)   Glyoxisomes. D)   Vacuoles.
Q.10 The structures that are involved in the manufacture and supply of   energy to the cell
  are:  
  A) Centrioles. C) Nucleolus.
  B) Plastids. D)   Mitochondria.
Q.11 In a plant cell chlorophyll is present in:  
  A) Chromoplasts. C) Stroma.
  B)   Leucoplasts. D)   Chloroplasts.
Q.12 Cytokinesis is a division of:  
  A) Cytoplasm. C) Nucleus.
  B)   Chromosomes. D)   Nucleolus.
Q.13 During cell division the plant cell is not seen to have:
  A) Spindle fibers. C) Centromere.
  B)   Chromatids. D)   Centrioles.
Q.14 Which human disease is due to meiotic errors:  
  A) Typhoid. C) Measles.
  B)   Cholera. D)   Down’s syndrome.
Q.15 The basic element of all organic compounds is:  
  A) Oxygen. C) Hydrogen.
  B) Nitrogen. D)   Carbon.
Q.16 The most abundant carbohydrate in nature is:  
  A) Cellulose. C) Fructose.
  B)   Glycogen. D)   Starch.

 

 

 

46

 

  A) Acylglycerols. C) Phospholipids.
  B)   Isoprenoids. D)   Ketones.
Q.18 The number of types of amino acid that are found to occur in cells   are:
  A) 20. C) 100.
  B) 25. D)   170.
Q.19 Biochemically enzymes are:  
  A) Carbohydrates. C) Hormones.
  B) Fatty   acids. D)   Proteins.
Q.20 The presence of enzymes:  
  A) Slows down the rate of reaction. C) Does not show any change.
  B)   Increases the rate of reaction. D)   Completely stops the reaction.
Q.21 Lock and key model of enzyme reacting with substrate was originally   proposed by:
  A) Emil Fisher. C) Robert Hook.
  B)   Koshland. D)   Robert Brown.
Q.22 The major RNA in the cell is ribosomal RNA. It makes up:
  A) 80% of total RNAs. C) 90% of total RNAs.
  B) 58%   of total RNAs. D) 40%   of total RNA.
Q.23 Optimum pH for pepsin to work efficiently is:  
  A) 4.50 C) 6.80
  B)   2.00 D)   9.00
Q.24 Viruses are simplest organisms and:  
  A) Have their own enzymes. C) Undergo cell division.
  B) Have cell membrane but not cell D) Are only DNA or RNA particles
    wall. without   cellular structure.
Q.25 The most ancient bacteria are:  
  A) Eubacteria. C) Escherichia coli.
  B)   Archaeobacteria. D)   Streptococci.
Q.26 The bacteria that cause diseases in human beings, are called:
  A) Photosynthetic bacteria. C) Facultative bacteria.
  B)   Chemosynthetic bacteria. D)   Pathogenic bacteria.
Q.27 The mutualistic association between certain fungi and roots of   vascular plants is
  called:  
  A) Lichens. C) Budding.
  B)   Parasitism. D)   Mycorrhizae.
Q.28 Sponges which belong to phylum Porifera have:  
  A) Maximum capacity to regenerate. C) Moderate capacity to regenerate.
  B) Very   little capacity to regenerate. D) No   regeneration capacity.
Q.29 The platyhelminthes liver fluke is:  
  A) Ectoparasite in humans. C) Parasite of respiratory tract.
  B) Blood   parasite. D)   Parasite in the bile duct.
Q.30 Which of the following is of economic importance to man:
  A) Daphnia. C) Silkworm.
  B) Millipede. D)   Scorpion.
Q.31 The name Nicotiana tabacum is given to:  
  A) Potato. C) Red pepper.
  B)   Tomato. D)   Tobacco.
Q.32 Family Gramineae has:  
  A)   Only wheat. C)   Only rice.
  B)   Only corn. D) All   of the above.
Q.33 During swallowing the food travels from oral cavity to the stomach   by way of
  oesophagus:  
  A) Very quickly. C) Pushed down by pharynx.
  B) By   anti-peristalsis. D)   Moving due to peristalsis.

 

 

 

 

 

47

 

A)  Part of Stomach.

B)  Part of Small intestine.

 

Q.35      The term chyme is applied to:

 

A)  Semi-digestive food in oral cavity.

 

B)  Semi-solid food in stomach.


C)   Part of Large intestine.

D)  Separate gland.

 

C)   Semi-digested food in the small intestine.

D)  Completely digested food in the last part of small intestine.

 

 

Q.36 Villi and micro villi are present:  
  A) In pharynx. C) In oesophagus.
  B) In   small intestine (jejunum). D) In   large intestine.
Q.37 Exchange of gases during orginismic respiration is carried out by:
  A) Diffusion. C) Osmosis.
  B) Active   transport. D)   Facilitated diffusion.
Q.38 The opening in the oral cavity (throat) through which air enters the   wind pipe is
  called:  
  A) Glottis. C) Larynx.
  B) Bronchus. D)   Pharynx.
Q.39 The double layer of thin membranes which line and cover lungs are   called:
  A) Diaphragm. C) Pleura.
  B) Alveoli. D)   Bronchioles.
Q.40 Transportation of oxygen from lungs to the tissue cells is by means   of:
  A) Complete blood. C) Red blood cells.
  B)   Lymph. D)   White blood cells.
Q.41 Podocytes are present in:  
  A) Epithelium of renal capsule. C) Basement membrane of blood
  B) Endothelium of blood capillary. capillary.
      D)   Epithelium of the PCT.
Q.42 Which of the following are the functions of proximal convoluted   tubule:
  A) Ultrafiltration and reabsorption. C) Selective reabsorption and active
  B) Selective reabsorption and tubular secretion.
    retention of water. D) Reabsorption of water by the help
      of ADH.

 

 

 

Q.43      The walls of descending limb of loop of Henle are:

 

A)  Permeable to water as well as to sodium and chloride.

 

B)  Permeable to water but impermeable to salts.


 

C)   Impermeable to water and permeable to sodium and chloride.

D)  Impermeable to both water and salts.

 

 

Q.44 ADH affects which of the following for retention of water:
  A) Walls of collecting duct. C) Glomerulus.
  B)   Walls of loop of Henle. D)   Proximal convoluted tubule.
Q.45 The counter-current multiplier mechanism is shown by which of the   following:
  A)   Loop of Henle. C)   Distal convoluted tubule.
  B)   Proximal convoluted tubule. D)   Bowman’s capsule.
Q.46 Mechanoreceptors detect stimulus of:  
  A) Smell. C) Pressure (touch).
  B)   Light. D)   Cold and warmth.
Q.47 The effectors in the human body which respond to a stimulus are:
  A) Glands only. C) Both muscles and glands.
  B)   Muscles only. D)   Bones.
Q.48 Loss of memory (Dementia) is also known as:  
  A) Alzheimer’s disease. C) Parkinson’s disease.
  B)   Epilepsy. D)   Graves disease.
Q.49 A mix nerve consists of:  
  A) Motor and sensory nerve fibers. C) Motor and associative nerve fibers.
  B) Sensory and associative nerve D) Dendrons and dendrites.
  fibers.  

 

 

48

 

  A) LH (Luteinizing Hormone). C) Testosterone.
  B) Gonadotropin hormone. D) Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH).
Q.51 Treponema pallidum cause a disease (sexually transmitted) called:
  A) Genital Herpes. C) Gonorrhoa.
  B)   AIDS. D)   Syphilis.
Q.52 The fertilization of ovum takes place in the proximal part of the:
  A) Uterus. C) Placenta.
  B)   Oviduct. D)   Urethra.
Q.53 Pregnancy is maintained by the:    
  A) LTH (Luteotropic hormone). C) Corticosteroids.
  B)   Progesterone. D) LH   and FSH.
Q.54 At which month of pregnancy the human embryo is referred to as the   fetus:
  A) 3rd month. C) 6th month.
  B) 4th month. D) 2nd month.
Q.55 Muscle fatigue is due to accumulation of:    
  A) Lactic acid. C) Glucose.
  B)   ATP. D)   Fats.
Q.56 Diameter of skeletal muscle fiber is:    
  A) 2-50 μm. C) 10-100 μm.
  B)   30-90 μm. D)   1-80 μm.
Q.57 Lining of digestive system contain the:    
  A) Skeletal muscles. C) Cardiac muscles.
  B)   Skeletal and cardiac muscles. D)   Smooth muscles.
Q.58 The vertebral column consists of _______ vertebrae:  
  A) 33 C) 28
  B) 30 D) 38
Q.59 The most abundant type of bone found on moveable joints is:
  A) Bone. C) Fibro-cartilage.
  B) Hyaline   cartilage. D)   Bone and fibro-cartilage.
Q.60 Which of the following is a hormone:    
  A) Gastric juice. C) Bile.
  B) Pancreatic   juice. D)   Insulin.
Q.61 The hormones in the human body are produced by:  
  A) Brain only. C) Pancreas only.
  B)   Liver only. D)   Different endocrine glands.
Q.62 Insulin is a hormone produced by:    
  A) Thyroid gland. C) Adrenaline gland.
  B)   Parathyroid. D)   Pancreas.
Q.63 The hormone called Parathormone regulates calcium level in the   blood. This hormone
  is produced by:    
  A) Gonads. C) Thyroid gland.
  B)   Gut. D) Parathyroid.
Q.64 The chemical nature of antibody is:    
  A) Glycoproteins. C) Lipoproteins.
  B) Glycolipids. D)   Polysaccharides.
Q.65 Which chemicals are secreted by T-helper cells to stimulate B-plasma   cells to divide:
  A) Interferons. C) Histamines.
  B) Cytokines. D)   Fibrin.
Q.66 Which of the following is described as   vaccination:    
  A) Artificial active immunity. C) Artificial passive immunity.
  B)   Natural active immunity. D)   Natural passive immunity.

 

 

 

Q.67      B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes are formed:

 

A)  Before birth in bone marrow.

B)  Before birth in thymus gland.


 

C)   After maturity in blood.

 

D)  After birth in blood.

 

 

 

 

49

 

  A) Natural passive immunity. C) Natural active immunity.
  B) Artificial   passive immunity. D)   Artificial active immunity.
Q.69 Which of the following is not the end product of glycolysis:
  A) Pyruvate. C) Oxaloacetate.
  B)   ATP. D) Reduced   NAD.
Q.70 Which of the following process does occur for the formation of acetyl   Co-A from
  pyruvate:    
  A) Decarboxylation. C) Carboxylation.
  B)   Hydrogenation. D)   Deaminaiton.
Q.71 At the beginning of Krebs cycle, acetyl Co-A combines with which   substance to form
  citrate (6-C):    
  A) Oxaloacetate. C) Fumarate.
  B) Oxoglutarate. D)   Succinate.
Q.72 Which of the following are the end products of light dependent   stage, used in the
  Calvin cycle to change glycerate-3-phosphates into triose   phosphates:
  A) NADPH + ATP C) RuBp + ATP
  B)   NADH + ATP D) O2 + NADPH
Q.73 Which of the following is not the end product of non-cyclic   photophosphorylation:
  A) Reduced NADP. C) O2.
  B)   ATP. D) CO2.
Q.74 Enzymes restriction endonucleases were isolated from:
  A) Viruses. C) Fungi.
  B)   Bacteria. D)   Protozoan.
Q.75 During polymerase chain reaction, how DNA double helix is separated:
  A) By heat treatment. C) By use of enzyme DNA Helicase.
  B) By   use of enzyme DNA Polymerase. D) By   use of enzyme DNA Ligase.
Q.76 Which enzyme is used to join the desired gene into the plasmid DNA   during genetic
  engineering:    
  A) DNA Helicase. C) DNA Polymerase.
  B) DNA   Ligase. D) Taq   Polymerase.
Q.77 Which of the following is an example of benefits of transgenic   organisms produced
  through genetic engineering:    
  A) Production of antibiotics. C) Production of anti-rabies vaccine.
  B) Production   of insulin. D)   Production of anti-malarial drugs.
Q.78 In cystic fibrosis transportation of which ion is faulty, resulting   into the production of
  disease:    
  A) Chloride. C) Calcium.
  B)   Fluoride. D)   Magnesium.
Q.79 A group of inter-breeding individuals occurring together in a space   and time is called:
  A) Community. C) Niche.
  B)   Population. D)   Species.
Q.80 Which of these is biotic factor of the ecosystem:    
  A) Air. C) Soil.
  B)   Water. D)   Photosynthetic plants.
Q.81 An association between organisms which brings benefit to both the   organisms is
  known as:    
  A) Predation. C) Grazing.
  B)   Commensalism. D)   Symbiosis.
Q.82 When succession is completed, a great diversity of plants and a   stable community is
  seen, which is called:    
  A) Hydrosphere. C) Climax community.
  B)   Pioneers. D)   Secondary succession.
Q.83 A thin layer of earth in which all living organisms exists is   called:
  A) Ecosystem. C) Habitat.
  B) Biosphere. D)   Xerosere.

 

 

 

50

 

  B)   Comparative anatomy. D) Palaeontology.
Q.85 One of the factors given below does not effect gene frequency:
  A) Mutation. C) Genetic drift.
  B) Migration. D)   Food.

 

 

Q.86      Charles Darwin gave the:

 

A)  Theory of special creation.

B)  Theory of Natural selection.


 

C)   Inheritance of acquired characters.

 

D)  Cell theory.

 

 

Q.87 A gene which has multiple phenotypic effect is   called:  
  A) Pleiotropic. C) Multiple allele.
  B) Epistasis. D)   Locus.
Q.88 Change in the nature of gene is known as:    
  A) Incomplete dominance. C) Mutation.
  B) Pleiotropy. D) Polygenic trait.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

51

 

 

APTITUDE FEEDBACK FOR ENTRANCE TEST 2013

 

 

 

 

 

A compulsory feedback shall be administered to all candidates after the completion of Entrance Test 2013, collection and secure packing of the Question Papers and Response Forms. The feedback is

for University and Government use only and SHALL NOT IN ANY WAY affect the merit of the candidates.

 

Filed under: Admission No Comments
27Jun/130

CONSOLIDATED ADVERTISEMENT NO. 10/2013 PPSC

CONSOLIDATED ADVERTISEMENT NO. 10/2013

Appeared in the daily The Nation & Jang on Sunday 23-06-2013

 

APPLICATIONS OTHER THAN ON-LINE WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED

 

ENVIRONMENT PROTECTION DEPARTMENT

 

SR. NO. 71.      (CASE NO.12-RE/2013) RECRUITMENT TO 08 (EIGHT) POSTS  INCLUDING THREE POSTS RESERVED FOR WOMEN OF ASSISTANT DIRECTOR (FIELD)/ DO(E) / DDO (E) ON FIVE YEARS CONTRACT BASIS.

 

QUALIFICATION:

I)          M.Sc / B.S (2nd division) in Environmental Sciences from a recognized University;              OR

II)          B.Sc (2nd division) in Environmental Engineering, Chemical Engineering or Agricultural Engineering from a recognized University;         OR

III)         Master’s Degree (2nd division) in Environmental Management or equivalent from a recognized University.

 

PAY :   BS-17 + 30% as Social Security Allowance in lieu of Pension.

AGE:    i)          18 to 28 + 5 years  = 33 years for Male candidates and

ii)          18 to 28 + 8 years = 36 years for Female candidates across the board general relaxation in upper age limit as per Government of the Punjab S&GAD circular letter No.SOR (S&GAD) 9-36/81 dated 21-05-2012 on  15-07-2013.

DOMICILE:                   Punjab.

GENDER:                      Both Male & Female candidates domiciled in any district of the province of Punjab.

PLACE OF POSTING:   Anywhere in Punjab.

 

SR. NO. 72.      (CASE NO.13-RE/2013) RECRUITMENT TO 07 (SEVEN) POSTS OF RESEARCH ASSISTANT ON FIVE YEARS CONTRACT BASIS.

 

QUALIFICATION:          B.S (2nd division) in Environmental Sciences from a recognized University.

PAY:     BS-16 + 30% as Social Security Allowance in lieu of Pension.

AGE:    i)          18 to 28 + 5 years  = 33 years for Male candidates and

ii)          18 to 28 + 8 years = 36 years for Female candidates across the board general relaxation in upper age limit as per Government of the Punjab S&GAD circular letter No.SOR (S&GAD) 9-36/81 dated 21-05-2012 on  15-07-2013.

DOMICILE:                   Punjab.

GENDER:                      Both Male & Female candidates domiciled in any district of the province of Punjab.

PLACE OF POSTING:   Anywhere in Punjab.

 

HEALTH DEPARTMENT

 

SR. NO. 73.      (CASE NO.208-RC/2013) RECRUITMENT TO 35 (THIRTY FIVE) (INCLUDING 05 RESERVED FOR WOMEN, 02 RESERVED FOR MINORITIES AND 01 RESERVED FOR DISABLED PERSONS) POSTS OF PHARMACISTS ON REGULAR BASIS.

 

QUALIFICATION:          Doctor of Pharmacy (Pharm-D) from a recognized University.

PAY:     BS-17

AGE:    i)          21 to 28 + 5 years  = 33 years for Male candidates and

ii)          21 to 28 + 8 years = 36 years for Female candidates across the board general relaxation in upper age limit as per Government of the Punjab S&GAD circular letter No.SOR (S&GAD) 9-36/81 dated 21-05-2012 on  15-07-2013.

DOMICILE:                   Punjab.

GENDER:                      Both Male & Female.

PLACE OF POSTING:   Anywhere in Punjab.

 

MINES & MINERALS DEPARTMENT

 

SR. NO. 74.      (CASE NO.18-RG/2013) RECRUITMENT TO 02 (TWO) PERMANENT POSTS OF SENIOR INSTRUCTOR MINING UNDER THE CHIEF INSPECTORATE OF MINES.

 

QUALIFICATION:          i)     Matric    ii) 3 years diploma in Mining Technology from a recognized Institute.

iii)   5 years experience in Mining.

PAY:     BS-16

AGE:    23 to 35 + 5 years general relaxation in upper age limit as per Government of the Punjab S&GAD circular letter No.SOR-I (S&GAD) 9-36/81 dated 4-11-2006 = 40 years on 15-07-2013.

DOMICILE:       Punjab.

GENDER:          Only Male domiciled in any district of Province of Punjab.

PLACE OF POSTING: Anywhere in Punjab.

 

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

 

1.             Applicants are required to submit ONLINE Application Forms by the closing date which is15-07-2013 (till 04.00 pm). Candidate should fill the Online form carefully for which detailed guidelines and instructions have been given on Punjab Public Service Commission's website www.ppsc.gop.pk. Editing options, to correct any data, will be available to the candidates till 04:00 P.M (office closing time) of last date of submission of online applications. Applications other than ONLINE will not be accepted.

 

2.             Original Treasury receipt of Rs.400/- for Sr. No. 71, 72 and 74 & Rs.300/- for Sr. No.73  under head: “C02101-ORGANIZATIONS OF STATE-EXAMINATION FEE REALIZED BY THE PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION”, will be deposited in any branch of State Bank of Pakistan or National Bank of Pakistan or Government Treasury and receipt number will be mentioned in the On-line Application Form. Original receipt will be produced at the time of interview, without which candidates will not be allowed to appear in the interview. Original receipt will be retained by PPSC Staff for record purposes.

 

3.             HARD COPY of ONLINE Application Form is not needed.

 

4.             Correspondence with candidates will be done through E-mail. Candidates are advised to mention their e-mail addresses in the On-Line Application form. Those who do not have e-mail addresses are advised to create e-mail account immediately.

 

5.             Schedule of interviews/viva voice for the said posts will be uploaded on the Commission’s website from where candidates can download their call-up-letter and information about date, time and venue of interview / viva voice. No candidate will be informed about the date of interview / viva voce individually. The candidates should remain in touch with the Punjab Public Service Commission office or visit the Commission’s website: www.ppsc.gop.pk for further information. (For Sr. No.73)

 

6.             In case a large number of applications are received, one paper Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) type written test of 100 marks relating to prescribed qualification and job description of the post will be conducted to shortlist the candidates. Details of written test will be given on PPSC website from where candidates can download their roll numbers and information about date, time and venues. No candidate will be informed about the date of Written Test / Interview individually. The candidates should remain in touch with the Punjab Public Service Commission Office or visit the Commission's Website www.ppsc.gop.pk for further information.

 

7.             For all those posts where written test is to be held, it will most likely be held after two weeks of closing date.

 

8.             The number of posts may be increased or decreased by the Competent Authority only if no date for written examination is fixed and in case when selection is made only on the basis of viva-voce/interview, before a date for viva-voce/interview has been fixed.

 

9.             Candidates presently living/residing abroad and having Punjab Domicile may also apply.

 

10.          In case of disabled person, Column 20 of Online application form should be filled in mentioning 'Yes' or 'No'. If the candidate is disabled, he/she will have to submit a certificate from Provincial Council for rehabilitation of disabled persons of Social Welfare Department.

 

11.       Following documents in Original along with a set of photocopy will be required if called for interview/viva voce:-

a)         Original Treasury Receipt of fee deposited.

b)         Matriculation Certificate or in case of 'O' Level, equivalent certificate from Inter Board Committee of Chairmen(IBCC) Islamabad showing total/obtained marks, date of birth. Or school leaving certificate showing date of birth.

c)         Intermediate Certificate / 'A' level along with equivalent qualification showing total/obtained marks.

d)         Degrees / Detailed marks of relevant academic certificates issued by the Controller of Examinations.

e)         Degree of Pharm-D and Detailed marks of Pharm-D (1st to final profs.) Duly issued by Controller of Examinations showing total / obtained marks and percentages. In case detailed marks are not produced then minimum passing marks will be considered. (For Sr. No.73).

f)          3 years Diploma in Mining Technology duly issued by the Controller of Examinations. (For Sr. No.74)

g)         Domicile certificate of relevant district of Province of Punjab issued on or before the closing date.

h)         In case of Government Servant, Departmental Permission Certificate (available on PPSC website) duly signed and stamped by the competent authority of concerned Department.

i)          Experience certificate (specimen available on website) issued from competent authority, if required.

j)          Disability certificate, if “Yes” in Column 20 of Online Application Form has been ticked.

k)         Original Valid C.N.I.C.

l)          Foreign qualification(s) must be recognized by the Higher Education Commission / Qualification Equivalence Determine Committee (QEDC).

 

Important Note:         Candidates will be called for written test / interview / viva voce provisionally. On detailed scrutiny of applications of candidates declared successful in written test,  if any candidate is found ineligible in any respect under rules, his/her candidature will be cancelled regardless of the fact whether he / she appeared in the written test or qualified therein. To avoid frustration, candidates are advised in their own interest to make sure before applying that they fulfill all the requirements of the rules and selection criteria as advertised relating to the post before the closing date.

 

PPSC's Help lines:     Lahore: 042-99202762, 042-99200161, 99200162,

Multan:             061-6510601, 061-6510602.   Rawalpindi: 051-9280325

NAYYER IQBAL (SECRETARY)

TEL: 042-99200161, 99200162, 99202762.

E-mail: ppsc@punjab.gov.pk, Website: www.ppsc.gop.pk

 

 

25Jun/130

Promoting education in Pakistan UK’s top priority: British Council

Promoting education in Pakistan UK’s top priority: British Council

Staff Report
LAHORE: Supporting Pakistani authorities in achieving its educational mandate is Britain’s top priority, said British Council Examinations Product Manager Ronald Davis in a joint seminar organised by Edexcel and British Council on ‘Latest Trends in UK Qualifications and Curriculum.’ He said the United Kingdom (UK) through British Council plans to improve the state of education and is taking initiatives that would provide opportunities to children to get quality education within the country and abroad. The children intending to get education in the UK would be facilitated at every level, he said. “The British Council creates international opportunities for the people of the UK and other countries and builds trust between them. In Pakistan we create opportunities to experience the best of the United Kingdom. We are working with partners in the UK and in Pakistan to build relationships that last with institutions,” said Davis. The joint seminar was attended by officials of British Council, Edexcel International team, Lahore Grammar School, Beacon House, Froebel’s, Allied School and others. Addressing the seminar, David Davies, the Director of Stakeholder Management, Edexcel UK said, “Pearson-Edexcel’s UK qualification due to its rigorous process is acclaimed the world over. Edexcel is proud to have taken this initiative to update the international community about the latest trends in the UK curriculum and qualifications,” he said. Premila Paulraj Canitius, Assistant Vice President, Edexcel Academics - Subcontinent said, “I am pleased that the British Council is partnering Pearson - Edexcel to promote this unique initiative. This association will help millions of people in Pakistan in attaining a brighter future. We are extending our support in terms of training in Pakistan and have also launched some new initiatives for schools. Academicians and parents have realised the importance of Edexcel qualifications being offered in schools, which not only makes learning a practical and pleasurable experience but also gives children a well rounded personality with an opportunity to explore further.” (daily times Pakistan)

23Jun/130

QAU situtaion vacant

 

page1

S. Name of Post No
US/BPS 01
Associate Professor of Taxila Institute of Asian Civilization
(I) Comparative Civilizations 0 (ii) Archaeology and Ancient History
2. Associate Professor
TTS 01 Applied BM Science and Bin-energy from lower plants.
Minimum Qualification for Associate Professo on BPS  Ph.D in the relevant field from an HEC recognized University/Institution. 10-years teaching/research experience in an HEC recognized University or postgraduate Institution or professional experience in the relevant field in a National or International organization. OR 5-years post-Ph .0 teaching / research experience in an HEC recognized University or a postgraduate Institution or professional experience in the relevant tied in a National or International Organization. 10 publicaitons with at least 4-publications in the last 5-years in MEC recognized journals. Minimum GuallficatIonf or Associate Professor on TTS  Ph.D. from a recognized institution in the relevant field. 6-years Post Ph.D teaching/research experience In a recognized University or a post-graduate Institution or profess onal experience in the re evant lied in a National or International research OrganieatNn. OR 4-years of Post PNDexperience withal least 6-years of experience prior to Ph .D (3 yearsof Pre PhD experience will be counted as one year of post -PhD experience, counting MI fractions), reaching research experience in a recognized University or a post-graduate Institution or professional experience in the relevant field in a National or Internet anal research Organization. 10 research pub l Nations (with at least 4-publications in the last 5-years), recognized for the purpose of appointment on US by HEC. Minimum of six months continuous Post doctoral research experience from tore gn University institute M the relevant fieN or successful supervision (as Supervisor) of one Ph.D. thesis or six M.Phil thesis or three M.Phil plus six M.Sc thesis where M.Sc. thesis is compulsory and carries a win mum of nine credit hours. For the purpose of appointment on Tenure Track by the Higher Education Commission, i.e. research papers published in Journals that fall under the category W, X and Y for Social Sciences while for Science disciplines papers published in only W category (Impact Factor)Journals.
Minimum Qualification for Assistant Professor on BPS  PhD in the relevant field from HEC recognized University/Institution. No experience required. OR Masters degree (foreign) or MPhil. (Pakistan) or equivalent degree awarded after 18-years of education as determined by the HOC in the relevant field from an NEC recognized University Institution 4-years teaching/research experience in a recognized University or a postgraduate Institution or professional experience in the relevant field in a National or International organization. Minimum Qualification for Assistant Professor of I.T./Computer Science on BPS Ph.D. in there event field tom an NEC recognized University /Institution. No experience required.
OR Masters degree awarded after 15 years of education in the relevant lied from an NEC recognized University Institution with 2-years teaching research experience in a recognized Institution/University or 2-years professional experience in the relevant Feld in a National or International Organization. Minimum Qualification for Assistant Professor on TTS  Ph.D from a recognized Institution in the relevant field. Excellent written and communication skins to be judged through the University so Oct process by a written test seminar
Note: BPS applicants will only be considered if no applicant on ITS is available. Non-teaching positions (BPS-17 and above) S# Name of Position BPS Regional Qualification and Experience Quota
3. Assistant Professor US 01 Plant Taxonomy with preference in Herbarium Technology. 4. Assistant Professor of US/BPS 03 Information Technology Assistant Professor of US 02 Environmental Microbiology / Renewable Microbiology Bioenergy, Veterhary Microbiology Viroagy B. Assistant Professor of Physics US 01 — Assistant Professor of US 02 Field related with Environmental Environmental Sciences SCienceS Assistant Professor of Taxila US/BPS 01 Ancient Languages & Scripts Institute of Asian Civilization
1. Treasurer 20 Punjab • Chartered Accountant / MBA (Finance) / MA (Economics) / M.Com / ACMA with at least second dvision. 18-years experience in Accounts h Government / Semi Government Private Orgarfizalion of repute. • Preference shall be given to those candidates who have higher qualification and Accounts Admmistratmn experience. Age limit: 45-55 years; relaxation in age can be considered in suitable and demanding cases Controller of Examinations 20 Sindh (Rural) Ph.D. preferably M Education / Administrathn / Management / Planning with 10-years teaching or administrative experience at a high level (equivalentto BPS-18 or above) in a University or Education Department. OR MPhil or equivalent preferably in Education Administration / Management/Planning with 16- years teaching or admit strative experience at a high Myer (equivahnt to BPS-17 or above) in a University or Educathn Department. OR Masters preferably h Education/ Admiastration Management / Planning (MBA/MPA etc ) with 18-years teaching or administrative experience at a high level (equivalent to BPS-17 or above) in aUniversity or Education Department. Director (P & Di 20 Punjab Ph.D degree from SEC recognaed University Institution with 09-years experience h BPS 17 and above or equivalent in relevant field. OR M.Phil or equivalent degree with 13-years experience in BPS 17 and above or eguivaant in relevant field. OR At least 2nd class Master degree with 17 yearn in BPS-17 and above or equivalent in relevantfield Preference will be given to those candidates having academh qualification in Economics, Project Planning; Project Management, Education Nanning and Manes ement, Administrative and Management Sciences or any relevant discOne. Knowledge of project proposal preparation, monitodng and evaluation of development projects, public sector development program etc. will be advantageous. Age/haft: 37-55 years 4. Director (ORIC) 20 Sindh (Urban) Ph.D. from HEC recognized Unlversity / Institution with at least 06 years of experience with a record of continuous activity and achievement as a senor researcher with an established national / International organ zakon of reputation. Age limit 37-55 years Director (Undergraduate Program) 20 Merit 41 Ph .D. holder with at least ten years substantial experience in coordinating undergraduate programmes and who is able to interpret the Higher Education polar. and take approprhte implantathn action of undergraduaa Moe! educathn. .He / She should be familhr with educations pokey in Pakistan and educational needs of the national / International market Be Great ve and innovatae in curriculum development. Be a result oriented and relational person. .Han served as an HOD or Director h an Insfitution of higher learning for at Mast 02-years.

21Jun/130

زکریا یونیورسٹی کے زیراہتمام بی اے ‘ بی ایس سی سالانہ امتحان کے چند مضامین کے پریکٹیکل امتحان کے شیڈول میں تبدیلی

ملتان ( نمائندہ نوائے وقت) اسسٹنٹ کنٹرولر امتحانات زکریا یونیورسٹی مظفرقادر بھٹی کے مطابق بہاءالدین زکریا یونیورسٹی کے زیرانتظام‘ بی اے / بی ایس سی سالانہ امتحان 2013ءکے چند پریکٹیکل مضامین شماریات‘ ہیلتھ اینڈ فزیکل ایجوکیشن‘ فزکس‘ جغرافیہ اور کیمسٹری کے شیڈول (انعقاد امتحان) میں بوجہ تضاد بورڈ پریکٹیکل امتحان و بروقت اعلان نتیجہ بی اے / بی ایس سی تبدیل کردی گئی ہے جس کےلئے تمام امیدواران اپنے پریکیٹیکل مضمون/ امتحان بارے معلومات یونیورسٹی ویب سائٹ www.bzu.edu.pk سے ڈا¶ن لوڈ کر سکتے ہیں اور تمام امیدواران (ریگولر/ پرائیویٹ) کو پریکٹیکل رول نمبر سلپس ان کے سربراہان کالجز/ ان کے فراہم کردہ پتہ جات پر بذریعہ ڈاک ارسال کردی گئی ہیں کی جارہی ہیں تاہم اگر کسی امیدوار کو موصول نہ ہوں تو وہ دفتر ناظم امتحانات سے رابطہ کرکے پریکٹیکل سلپ (بلامعاوضہ) حاصل کر سکتے ہیں۔

Filed under: Examinaion No Comments
21Jun/130

Punjab govt to form district school regulating authorities

Rawalpindi - The Punjab government on Wednesday decided to establish district education authorities for regulating schools and resolving education related problems in the province.

The authorities would comprise 9 to 15 members including MNAs and MPAs, local government members, retired bureaucrats and other officers.

They would be authorized to approve or reject school renovations, teacher recruitments and transfers, laboratories, halls and rooms’ construction and the purchase of furniture.

According to sources, the paper work for the authorities’ formation is in its final stages and they would be established in the fiscal year 2013-14.

Meanwhile, teachers unions have decided to reject the formation of the authorities and start a protest movement throughout the province.

They believe that the authorities aim at a gradual privatization of government schools. They expressed fears that the authorities would merge schools in the first phase, and close schools or privatise them in the second. They also feared that teachers would be hired contractually.  -( from http://www.pakistantoday.com.pk/2013/06/19/city/islamabad/punjab-govt-to-form-district-school-regulating-authorities/#sthash.4bUZZZWh.dpuf)

19Jun/130

Healthier Punjab: Young doctors recommend health education at schools

< >Healthier Punjab: Young doctors recommend health education at schools

LAHORE: The Young Doctors Association (YDA) has requested Chief Minister Shahbaz Sharif to include health education in school curricula.

YDA leader Salman Kazmi has wriiten a letter to the chief minister titled, Introduction of a Subject of Health Education with a Separate Book in Curriculum of the Students in Schools and Appointment of MBBS Doctors and BDS Dental Surgeons at Schools to Start Health Services.

The letter says that the preventive aspect of health care had always been neglected. Despite billions of rupees spent on the curative side, the government has been unable to satisfactorily control diseases. The letter proposed a subject of Health Education, with a proper book and yearly examination, be introduced at primary schools and continued till matriculation. The books should provide information on diseases like dengue fever, hepatitis A, B and C; malaria and gastroenteritis. “The hazards of smoking cigarettes and sheesha should also be included in the book so that students realise the causes of diseases and know how to save themselves from them,” the letter reads.

The letter said a physician and a dental surgeon should be appointed to teach the classes. They should also treat, examine and screen students for major illnesses and refer them to hospitals. This is already a practice in private schools that have hired doctors. The plan would not cost much because grade-17 posts were already vacant in the Education Department. Doctors could thus be appointed without new seats being created, Dr Kamzi suggested.

He said the only cost the government would have to incur would be the printing of books. He said a small booklet on dengue already existed. It could be expanded to include information about other diseases.

The practice exists in several other countries, he wrote. New graduates, after completing house jobs, could be given jobs on yearly contract basis. “We can even have a doctor and a dental surgeon for five schools. Appointing a doctor is necessary to run the programme as no one could replace a doctor, as far as screening and treatment is concerned,” Dr Kazmi wrote, “In five years, we could have a healthier Punjab.”

The government spent billions of rupees trying to create health awareness through newspaper ads. This was a waste of money. A quarter of the amount could be spent on the school health services to produce better results, he wrote. “We request you to direct the departments concerned to implement the proposal. The Young Doctors’ Association will assist the department in implementing it,” the letter reads.

Speaking to The Express Tribune, Dr Kazmi said not many doctors would want these jobs on a permanent basis. But, he said, fresh graduates could be given one-year contracts at schools after completing their house job. “There are also many lady doctors who quit the medical profession after getting married. Appointing them in schools would spare them night shifts,” he said. “We assure you of our support in running this programme,” Dr Kazmi wrote.

Published in The Express Tribune, June 17th, 2013.

19Jun/130

PAKISTAN TO FINANCE 3 NEW TURKEY SCHOOLS

Pakistan to finance 3 new Turkey schools

 Tuesday, June 18, 2013 - Islamabad—Three new schools will be built with 5 million Turkish Liras (TRY) grant of the Pakistani government following the earthquakes occurred in 2011 in Van, east of Turkey. The Pakistani government provided financial assistance worth of 5 million TRY in the scope of building brand new schools in Turkey’s eastern province of Van, where hundreds of houses were destroyed extensively in the earthquakes that took place between October 23 and November 9, 2011, Anadolu news agency reported.
The Vali Mithatbey neighbourhood of the city where one of the schools will be built. Speaking at the ceremony, Munir Karaloglu, governor of Van, said that Pakistan and Turkey were two sister countries and added, Pakistan was one of those countries who always helped Turkey during extraordinary situations or disasters at first place.
Karaloglu reminded the aid assistance of Pakistan just after the earthquakes and said, they were very happy to be at the groundbreaking ceremony of a high school which was supported from Pakistan. Governor Karaloglu noted, three of the Pakistani schools were planned to be completed in October 2013 and they would like to host Pakistani Prime Minister Nawaz Sharif at the opening of the education year of 2013-2014.—APP (PASKISTAN OBSERVER)
18Jun/130

International Islamic University, Islamabad, Pakistan ACADEMIC PROGRAM OFFERED FOR FALL 2103

Admissions FALL 2013

Test / Interview Schedule
ADMISSION  PROCEDURE
Students   with awaiting results:
Applicants awaiting results (only those who have already appeared in the exams) can also apply for admission and if they pass the entry test they shall be given provisional admission until declaration of their respective results. Such candidates are required to fill in the undertaking that he/she will submit result within two month’s time after commencement of semester and if he/she fails to secure required marks or CGPA, his / her admission shall be treated as cancelled immediately without any further notice and continuation of studies shall be considered Unlawful. Further more such candidates will not be entitled for refund of tuition fee. Applicants securing straight pass grades with required percentage only shall be eligible for continuation of studies. 

The absolute value of percentage is considered as final; it is not rounded off to next whole number e.g. 49.99% is considered 49.99% and NOT 50%.

NTS / GAT Scores:
No forms for MS/Ph.D level programs will be accepted on; a)      Result awaited basis, and b)      Without required NTS / GAT (General) and NTS GAT (Subject) scores respectively.
Test Schedule:
  • Schedule for admission test is available on IIUI website www.iiu.edu.pk and No Separate call letter will be issued to any candidate.
  • Result of the admission test will be displayed on IIUI website within five days after the date of admission test.
  • There will be no interview for BBA / BS / LLB Degree / Diploma programs.
Class Timings:
  • Classes are held from 8.30 a.m. to 8.30 p.m. according to the time table of respective Faculty/Department.
Code of Conduct:
  • Students shall be required to abide by the prescribed Rules and Regulations of IIUI and observe the dress code and basic Islamic tenets failing which student disciplinary action can be initiated as per disciplinary regulations enforce from time to time
SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION FORM:

Application Form/Prospectus can be purchased against payment of Rs.300/- from:

  1. Habib Bank Limited, IIU Branch Sector H-10, Islamabad
  2. Allied Bank Limited, Female Campus, IIU Branch Sector H-10, Islamabad
  3. First Women Bank Ltd. Women Campus, IIU Branch, Sector H-10, Islamabad.
  • Application Forms for Admission   can be downloaded from here . In case of any inconvenience please send email to admissions@iiu.edu.pk & receive   admission form through email.
  • Admission Form can also be obtained through post by sending self addressed envelop of 10”x12” along with draft of Rs.350/- on the following address at least 10 days before the closing date: Admission Office, Basement, Admin. Block, IIU, Sector H-10, Islamabad

Before submitting your form please check that

Non-refundable Application Processing Fee.

  • Rs.700/- (for Pakistani Applicants)
  • Rs.1000/- (Downloaded forms)
  • US $ 40 (for overseas Applicants)   is paid in the shape of Deposit Challan   or Bank Draft or Pay Order in favour   of IIUI payable at HBL IIU Branch (1844), Islamabad, A/C No.1844-00-1016-32 and attached with the form.

Application form is duly filled, signed and submitted in duplicate.

Four passport size photographs are attached.

Two (02) sets of attested photocopies of final degree/certificates and other testimonials are attached.

Copy of computerized NIC or Passport for candidates over the age of 18 years and Child Registration Form for candidates below  18 years

For Overseas candidates, Foreign Students Information Sheet (Download from IIUI website www.iiu.edu.pk) are attached.

Applications received after the due date shall not be accepted.

Applicants must bring the following   material at the time of the Entry   test:
  • Test Admission Slip.
  • Original NIC.
  • Clipboard, eraser, sharpener and   two pencils / ball pen.
  • Calculators, Mobile phones, and   other communication devices are not   allowed in the examination hall.
Application form in duplicate must reach IIUI before the last date (as advertised) on the following address:

FOR MALE APPLICANTS: (Pakistani):

      Admission Office, Basement, Admin. Block, International Islamic University, Sector H-10, Islamabad, Pakistan Ph: +92-51-9257988, Fax: 9257923.

 

FOR FEMALE APPLICANTS: (Pakistani) Admission Office, Room No.S-12, Admin Block, Women Campus, International Islamic University, H-10, Islamabad, Pakistan Ph: +92-51-9257985, 9019288, 9019322, 9019327; Fax: 9257929.

FOR OVERSEAS APPLICANTS (Male & Female): Overseas Admission Office, Room No. 129,1st Floor, Admin. Block, International Islamic University Sector H-10, Islamabad – Pakistan. Ph: +92-51-9258007, 9019565.

ADMISSION TEST:
Admissions are granted to the candidates (except overseas) on basis of written test and interview as per details announced by the University.  The admission test focuses language skills in Arabic/English language, subject aptitude and general analytical skills on the pattern of TOEFL, GMAT and SAT.  The weightage for admission test / interview and previous qualification is given below:
Admission Merit Criteria
ADMISSION MERIT CRITERIA
MASTERS/PH.D UNDER GRADUATE
Academics Qualification:             30%

Admission Test:                           50%

Interview:                         20%

Academics Qualification:        40%

Admission Test:                      60%

* Interview will be subject to passing test.

* In case of GRE Type test conducted by the university 70% marks will be required.

* Qualifying test & call for interview does not establish right to admission in any programme.

Academic Programs offered For FALL 2013

Applications must reach on or before 12-07-2013 (Friday) (For Pakistanis)

Overseas candidates can apply any time but would be considered for admission in the subsequent semester

Page Revised on: June 04, 2013

Name of the Academic Program and duration Offered For Admission Requirements / Eligibility Criteria
Faculty of Arabic
Ph.D Arabic Literature & Linguistics 

3 years

Male & Female 1- MS/M.Phil from IIUI, 2- M.A. (Arabic) IIU (18 years),     3- M. Phil from other Universities in Pakistan, 4- M.A. (Arabic) with thesis from recognized Arab Universities with minimum CGPA 3.00/4.00 or 65% marks in annual system. 

(For Sr. No.  3 & 4 the Faculty shall offer preparatory courses).

GAT (Subject) type test conducted by authorized body / department with 70% score.

MS Arabic Literature & Linguistics 

2 years

 

Male & Female B.A. (Hons)/BS-(4 years) Arabic from IIU with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system OR M.A. (Arabic) from IIU (2 years) or M.A (Arabic) from other Universities with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system. 

GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.

(Such candidates will have to study two semesters (preparatory courses) to enhance their skill to understand regular subjects of the program).

M.A Arabic 

2 years

 

Male & Female B.A. with minimum CGPA 2.00/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system. 

OR

Shahadat –ul- Almyia (8 years) from Recognized Wafaqs’ Board with 50% marks along with Equivalence Certificate from HEC.

B.S. Arabic 

4 years

Male & Female HSSC or equivalent with minimum 50 % marks. 

OR

Deeni Sand Khasa & Aama, along with Equivalence Certificate from IBCC).

Students who may lack the requisite linguistic proficiency in either Arabic or English shall be admitted in the respective ALT or ELT Units for preparatory courses in these languages. Admission of such students in regular program shall, however, be considered provisional until they acquire the requisite linguistic skill to understand regular subjects.

B.S. Translation &  Interpretation 

4 years

Male & Female HSSC or equivalent with 50 % marks.    OR 

Deeni Sand Khasa & Aama, along with Equivalence Certificate from IBCC.

Students who may lack the requisite linguistic proficiency in either Arabic or English shall be admitted in the respective ALT or ELT Departments for preparatory courses in these languages. Admission of such students in regular program shall, however, be considered provisional until they acquire the requisite linguistic skill to understand regular subjects.

FACULTY OF BASIC & APPLIED SCIENCE
Department of Computer Science
Ph.D Computer Science 

3 years

Male & Female MS/M.Phil. (CS/SE/IT) or equivalent disciplines 2 years degree program (minimum 30 credit hours) with research thesis securing minimum 3.0/4.0 CGPA or with 65% marks in annual system. The equivalent degree holders have to complete pre-requisite determined by department. GRE / GAT (Subject) with minimum 60% score.
MS Computer Science 

2 years

Male & Female BS (CS/SE/IT) 4 years degree program min 130 credit hours, or MCS/M. Sc. (CS) or equivalent with minimum CGPA 2.5/4.0 or 60% marks in annual system. OR 

BCS (Hons.) or BCS 3-years degree program with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system. Student will be required to complete the deficiency of difference of earned credit hours and total of 130 credit hours.  OR

BS/BE (Computer/Electronics/Communication) engineering degree or M.Sc. (Electronics / Communication) with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system. Student will be required to complete the deficiency courses. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.

MS Software Engineering 

2 years

Male & Female BS (CS/SE/IT) 4 years degree program min 130 credit hours, or MCS/M. Sc. (CS), or equivalent with minimum CGPA 2.5/4.0 or 60% marks in annual system. OR 

BCS (Hons.) or BCS 3-years degree program with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system. Student will be required to complete the deficiency of difference of earned credit hours and total of 130 credit hours. OR

BS/BE (Computer/Electronics/Communication) engineering degree or M.Sc. (Electronics / Communication) with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system. Student will be required to complete the deficiency courses. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.

BS Computer Science 

4 years

Male & Female HSSC (F.Sc. Pre-Engineering)/ICS/A-Level with Mathematics or equivalent with 50 marks, along with any of (Physics, Statistics, Computer Science) subjects. 

Candidates having 60% NAT (National Aptitude Test) score are exempted from the University admission / entry test.

BS Software Engineering 

4 years

Male & Female HSSC (F.Sc. Pre-Engineering)/ICS/A-Level with Mathematics or equivalent with 50 marks, along with any of (Physics, Statistics, Computer Science) subjects. 

Candidates having 60% NAT (National Aptitude Test) score are exempted from the University admission / entry test.

Department of Mathematics & Statistics
Ph.D Mathematics 

3 Years

Male MS / M.Phil in Mathematics with minimum 3.00/4.00 CGPA or 65% marks in annual system.  GRE / GAT (Subject) with minimum 60% score.
MS Mathematics 

2 years

Male & Female M.Sc/BS – (4 years) (Mathematics or Physics) with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.
MS Statistics 

2 years

Male M.Sc/BS-(4 years) (Statistics) with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system.  GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.
M.Sc Mathematics 

2 years

Male & Female BA/B.Sc (Mathematics as major subject) or equivalent with minimum CGPA 2.00/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system.
M.Sc Statistics 

2 years

Male & Female BA/B.Sc (Statistics as major subject) or equivalent with minimum CGPA 2.00/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system.
BS Mathematics 

4 years

Male & Female HSSC (Mathematics as major subject) or equivalent with minimum 50% marks.
BS Statistics 

4 years

Male & Female HSSC (Statistics or Mathematics as major subject) or equivalent with minimum 50% marks.
Department of Environmental Sciences
Ph.D (Environmental Science) 3 years Male & Female MS / M.Phil in Environmental Science (02) years degree program (minimum 30 credit hours) with research thesis securing minimum 3.00/4.00 CGPA or 65% marks in annual system.  GAT (Subject) with minimum 60% score.
MS Environmental Sciences 2 years Male & Female M.Sc/BS-(16 years) in Environmental Science with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.
MS/Professional Diploma in Environmental Management 

1-2 years (Evening)

Male M.Sc/BS-(16 years) in Environmental Science with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system in any one of following disciplines: 

Agriculture, Architecture, Bioinformatics, Biology, Botany, Business Administration, Chemistry, Development Studies, Economics, Engineering (Civil, Mechanical, Public Health), Environmental Sciences, Forestry, Geology, Geography, International Relation, Law, Management Sciences, Microbiology, Medicine (MBBS), Public Administration, Public Health, Rural Development, Sociology, Social Work, Zoology. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.

BS Environmental Science 

4 years

Male & Female HSSC (Pre-Medical/Pre-Engineering)/ or equivalent with minimum 50% marks.
Department of Bioinformatics & Biotechnology
MS Bioinformatics 

2 years

Male & Female BS-(4 years) (Bioinformatics / Biochemistry) or equivalent with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.
MS Biotechnology Male & Female BS-(4 years) with (Bioinformatics / Molecular Biology / Biotechnology / Biochemistry / Molecular Genetics / Agriculture Sciences / Animal Sciences) or equivalent with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.
BS Bioinformatics 

4 years

Male & Female HSSC (Pre–Medical / Pre-Engineering / ICS) or equivalent with minimum 50% marks.
BS Biotechnology 

4 years

Male & Female HSSC (Pre–Medical / Pre-Engineering / ICS) or equivalent with minimum 50% marks.
Department of Physics
Ph.D (Physics) 

3 years

Male & Female MS / M.Phil (Physics or equivalent) with minimum CGPA 3.00/4.00 or 65% marks in annual system. GAT (Subject) with minimum 60% score.
MS (Physics) 

2 years

Male & Female M.Sc (Physics or equivalent) with CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.
M.Sc (Physics) (Nanotechnology) 

2 years

Male & Female B.Sc (Physics with Mathematics) with minimum CGPA 2.00/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system.
BS (Physics) (Nanotechnology) 

4 years

Male & Female HSSC (Physics with Mathematics as major subject) or equivalent with minimum 50% marks.
FACULTY OF ENGINEERING & TECHNOLOGY
Department of Electronic Engineering
Ph.D (Electronic Engineering) 

With specialization in:

a)    Communication & Signal Processing

b)    Advanced Electronics & Controls

c)   Energy Engineering

3 Years

Male & Female MS Electronics (18 years education) in the relevant area of Engineering with minimum CGPA of 3.00/4.00 or 65% marks in annual system. 

 

GRE / GAT (Subject) with minimum 60% score.

MS (Electronic Engineering) 

With specialization in:

a)    Communication & Signal Processing

b)    Advanced Electronics & Controls

c)   Energy Engineering

2 Years

Male & Female M.Sc / BS (Electronics / Telecommunication), BE/BS Engineering (Electrical / Electronics / Avionics / Computer / Telecom) with minimum CGPA 2.5/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system. 

 

GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.

BS Electronic Engineering 

4 years

Male & Female HSSC (Pre-Engineering / Math. / Physics / Chemistry / Computer) or equivalent with minimum 60% marks.
Department of Mechanical Engineering
Ph.D (Mechanical Engineering) 

3 Years

Male MS (18 years education) in the relevant area of Engineering with minimum CGPA 3.00/4.00 or equivalent minimum 65% marks. 

GRE / GAT (Subject) with minimum 60% score.

MS (Mechanical Engineering) 

2 Years

Male BE/BS Engineering (Mechanical / Industrial / Avionics / Mechatronics) with minimum CGPA 2.5/4.00 OR equivalent. 

GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.

BS (Mechanical Engineering) 

4 Years

Male HSSC (Pre-Engineering) (Mathematics / Physics / Chemistry) or equivalent with minimum 60% marks or DAE-Mechanical with minimum 60% marks.
IQRA COLLEGE OF TECHNOLOGY
B-Tech (Mechanical) 

4 Years (Evening)

Male F.Sc (Pre-Engineering) with minimum 50% marks or DAE in any of the following technologies: 

Mechanical, Automobile & Diesel, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning.

B-Tech (Electrical) 

4 Years (Evening)

Male F.Sc (Pre-Engineering) with minimum 50% marks or DAE in any of the following technologies: 

Electrical, Electronics, Telecom, Information Technology, Instrumentation.

FACULTY OF MANAGEMENT SCIENCES
Ph.D Finance, Marketing, Management 

3 years (Evening)

Male & Female MS/M.Phil in the relevant field with minimum CGPA 3.00/4.00 (semester system) or 65% marks (annual system) from a recognized institution. GRE/ GAT (Subject) with minimum 60% score.
Ph.D Technology Management 

3 years (Evening)

Male & Female
MS Finance, Marketing, Management & Entrepreneurship 

1.5 years (Evening)

Male & Female MBA/BBA/BBA-ITM-(16 years education) or equivalent in the relevant field with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 (semester system) or 60% marks (annual system) from a recognized institution. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score. 

 

MS Technology Management 

1.5 years (Evening)

Male & Female
MBA Finance, Marketing, Management & Entrepreneurship  & MIS (17 years) 3.5 years (Morning) Male & Female BA/B.Sc./B.Com (14 years education) or equivalent with minimum CGPA 2.20/4.00 (semester system) or 50% marks (annual system) from a recognized institution.
MBA-ITM/Telecom Management 

3.5 years (Morning for Female) (Evening for Male)

Male & Female
MBA-IT (Project Management) 

3.5 years (Morning for Female) (Evening for Male)

Male & Female
MBA Finance, Marketing, Management & Entrepreneurship & MIS 

1.5 years (Morning/Evening)

Male & Female BBA (4-years) 16 years education with at least 124 credit hours or equivalent with minimum CGPA 2.20/4.00 (semester system) or 50% marks (annual system) from a recognized institution. 

 

MBA-ITM 

1.5 years (Morning/Evening)

Male & Female BBA-ITM (4-years) 16 years education with at least 124 credit hours or equivalent with minimum CGPA 2.20/4.00 (semester system) or 50% marks (annual system) from a recognized institution.
MBA Executive 

2 years (Evening)

Male & Female Bachelor Degree (14 years education) with minimum 50% marks from a recognized institution and 2 years full time job/work experience.
BBA 

4 years

Male & Female HSSC or equivalent with minimum 50% marks from recognized institution.
BBA-ITM 

4 years

Male & Female
FACULTY OF ISLAMIC STUDIES (Usuluddin)
Ph.D Islamic Studies (Usuluddin) 

3 years

Specializations:

i)        Tafseer & Qur’anic Studies

ii)       Hadith & Its Sciences

Male & Female MS Islamic Studies (Usuluddin) from IIU with minimum CGPA 3.00/4.00 (with thesis). 

OR

MS/M.Phil from recognized University with minimum CGPA 3.00/4.00 or 65% marks in annual system (with thesis).

 

GRE / GAT (Subject) with 60% score.

MS Islamic Studies (Usuluddin) 

2 years

Specializations:

i)         Tafseer & Qur’anic Studies

ii)        Hadith & Its Sciences

iii)       Comparative Religions

iv)       Aqidah & Philosophy

v)        Dawah & Islamic Culture

vi)       Seerah

vii)    Islamic History

Male & Female BS–(4years) Islamic Studies (Usuluddin) degree from IIU with minimum CGPA of 2.50/4.00. 

OR

MA or equivalent with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 in semester system or 60% marks in annual system from recognized Universities. Such candidates will first be admitted to study 2-3 semesters of provisional courses and required language(s). OR

BA from any recognized University with Shahadatul Alamiah form recognized Wifaqs (60% marks) along with all other Asnad like; Shahaditul Aalliah, Khassah and A’ama with equivalence of Shahaditul Alamiah from HEC.  GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.

Proficiency in both languages is required.  If any candidate lacks linguistic competence in any one of the languages, he / she will have to study it as a pre-requisite for his / her degree.

MA Islamic Studies in Urdu (Evening) (Self Finance)  

2 years

Male & Female BA or equivalent with minimum CGPA 2.00/4.00 in semester system or 50% marks in annual system. OR 

Shahadatul Alamiah from recognized Wifaqs along with all other Asnad like, Shahadatul Aaliah, Khassah and A’ama with equivalence of Shahadatul Alamiah from HEC.

MA, Islamic Studies (Usuluddin) 2 years Male & Female BA or equivalent with minimum CGPA 2.00/4.00 in semester system or 50% marks in annual system. OR 

Shahadatul Alamiah from recognized Wifaqs along with all other Asnad like, Shahadatul Aaliah, Khassah and A’ama with equivalence of Shahadatul Alamiah from HEC.

BS, Islamic Studies (Usuluddin) 

4 years

 

Male & Female HSSC or Equivalent with minimum 50% marks. 

OR

“Sanaviya, Khassah” from recognized Wifaqs’ of Pakistan along with equivalence from (IBCC).

INTERNATIONAL INSTITUTE OF ISLAMIC ECONOMICS
Department of Economics
Ph.D Economics 

3 years

Male & Female MS/M.Phil (Economics) with minimum CGPA 3.00/4.00 or 65% marks in annual system. GRE / GAT (Subject) with minimum 60% score.
Ph.D Econometrics 

3 years

Male MS/M.Phil (Economics/Statistics/Mathematics/Econometric) with minimum CGPA 3.00/4.00 or 65% marks in annual system. GRE / GAT (Subject) with minimum 60% score.
Ph.D Islamic Banking & Finance 

3 years

Male & Female MS / M.Phil Islamic Finance, LLM, MS/M.Phil Shariah / Islamic Studies, MS/M.Phil Economics / Rural Development, MS Finance with minimum CGPA 3.00/4.00 or 65% marks. 

Note: The candidates must have MS / LLM level research relevant to Islamic Banking & Finance.

MS Islamic Banking & Finance 

2 years

Male & Female 16 years degree in Economics / Finance / Commerce / Business Administration with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score. 

M.Sc degree will be awarded upon completion of coursework in one year and MS degree will be awarded upon completion of coursework with thesis.

MS Econometrics 

2 years

Male 16 years degree in Economics / Economics & Finance from IIU OR MA/M.Sc in Economics / Statistics / Mathematics from other universities with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score. 

M.Sc degree will be awarded upon completion of coursework in one year and MS degree will be awarded upon completion of coursework with thesis.

MS Economics & Finance 

2 years

Male & Female 16 years degree in Economics / Finance with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score. 

M.Sc degree will be awarded upon completion of coursework in one year and MS degree will be awarded upon completion of coursework with thesis.

MS Economics 

2 years

Male & Female 16 years degree in Economics / Finance with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score. 

M.Sc degree will be awarded upon completion of coursework in one year and MS degree will be awarded upon completion of coursework with thesis.

BS Economics 

4 years

 

Without or with specialization in Islamic Economics, Finance, Islamic Banking & Finance, Development Studies and Econometrics.

Male & Female Eligibility: 

i)        HSSC or equivalent with minimum 50% marks for admission in 1st semester.

 

ii)      BA/B.Sc with minimum 50% marks for admission in 5th semester.

 

B.A/B.Sc degree holders have a golden chance to accomplish BS (4 years) degree in two years.

FACULTY OF LANGUAGES & LITERATURE
Department of Urdu
Ph.D Urdu 

3 years

Male & Female MS/M.Phil (Urdu) with minimum CGPA 3.00/4.00 or 65% marks in annual system. 

GRE/GAT (Subject) with minimum 60% score.

MS Urdu 

2 years

Male & Female MA/BS-(4 years) (Urdu) with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.
MA Urdu 

2 years

Male & Female BA/B.Sc with minimum 45% marks or Post Graduate Diploma in Urdu.
BS Urdu 

4 years

Male & Female HSSC or equivalent with 45% marks.

Diploma / Certificate for Foreigners only (Will be display on IIU website only)

Diploma in Urdu 

1 Year

Male & Female HSSC/A-Level or equivalent and posses basic knowledge of Urdu.
Certificate Course in Urdu 

6 & 3 months

Male & Female HSSC / A-Level or equivalent.
Department of Persian
MS Persian 

2 years

Male & Female MA/BS-(4 years) (Persian) with minimum CGPA 2.5/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.
MA Persian 

2 years

Male & Female BA or equivalent with minimum CGPA 2.00/4.00 or 45% marks in annual system.
BS Persian 

4 years

Male & Female HSSC or equivalent with 45% marks.
Department of English
Ph.D English 

3 years

Female MS/M. Phil (English) / MS/M.Phil from Area Study Centres in the relevant field with minimum CGPA 3.00/4.00 or 65% marks in annual system. GAT (Subject) with minimum 60% score.
MS English 

2 years

Male & Female MA/BS-(4 years) (English) with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system. GAT (general) with minimum 50% marks.
MA English 

2 years

Male & Female BA/B.Sc with minimum CGPA 2.00/4.00 or 45% marks in annual system.
BS English 

4 years

Male & Female HSSC or equivalent with 45% marks.
FACULTY OF SOCIAL SCIENCES
Department of History & Pakistan Studies
Ph.D History 

3 years

Male & Female MS/M.Phil (History / Politics Science & International Relations / Pakistan Studies / Geography / Archaeology & Sociology) with minimum CGPA 3.00/4.00 or 65% marks in annual system.  GRE / GAT (Subject) with minimum 60% score.
Ph.D Pakistan Studies 

3 years

Male MS/M.Phil (Pakistan Studies, History, Politics Science) with minimum CGPA 3.00/4.00 or 65% marks in annual system.  GRE / GAT (Subject) with minimum 60% score.
MS History 

2 years

Male & Female MA-(2 years) / BS-(4 years) (History / Politics Science & International Relations / Pakistan Studies / Geography / Archaeology & Sociology) with minimum CGPA with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.
MS Pakistan Studies 2 years Male MA-(2 years) / BS-(4 years) (Pakistan Studies, History, Politics Science) or any such social sciences with minimum CGPA with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.
MA History 

2 years

Male & Female BA/B.Sc or equivalent with minimum CGPA 2.00/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system.
MA Pakistan Studies 2 years Male & Female BA/B.Sc. or equivalent degree from a HEC recognized Institution with minimum CGPA 2.00/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system.
BS History 

4 years

Male & Female HSSC or equivalent with minimum 50% marks.
BS Pakistan Studies 4 years Male HSSC or equivalent with minimum 50% marks.
Department of Education
Ph.D Education 

3 Years

Male MS / M.Phil (Education) with minimum CGPA 3.00/4.00 or 65% marks in annual system.  GRE / GAT (Subject) with 60% score.  (Preference will be given to the candidates who have teaching / administrative experience in the field of Education and have research publication (s))
MS Education 

2 years

Male & Female MA/M.Ed /BS-4 years (Education) with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score. (Preference will be given to the candidates who have done their thesis at master level).
MA Education 

2 years

Male & Female BA/B.Sc or equivalent with minimum CGPA 2.00/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system. 

(Preference will be given to the candidates who have studied education subject at bachelors level).

M.Ed 

1 year

Male & Female B.Ed with minimum CGPA 2.00/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system.
B.Ed 

1 year

Male & Female BA/B.Sc with minimum CGPA 2.00/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system.
BS Education 

4 years

Male & Female HSSC or equivalent with 50% marks
B.Ed (Hons) (Elementary Education) 4 years Male & Female FA / F.Sc / A-level with minimum 50% marks. 

(Note: Students having BA/B.Sc or equivalent degree can join the course for 2 years.)

B.Ed (Hons) (Secondary Education) 4 years Male & Female FA / F.Sc / A-level with minimum 50% marks. 

(Note: Students having BA/B.Sc or equivalent degree can join the course for 2 years.)

B.Ed (Weekend program) 2 years (Classes will be held on Saturday & Sunday) Male BA / B.Sc or equivalent degree from a recognized institution with good academic standing and not less than CGPA 2.00/4.00 or 50% marks.
Associate Degree in Education (ADE) 

2 years

Male & Female FA / F.Sc / A-level with minimum 50% marks.
Department of Psychology
MS Psychology 

2 years

Male & Female MA/M.Sc/BS-(4 years) (Psychology) with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.
M.Sc Psychology 

2 years

Male & Female BA/B.Sc (Psychology/Zoology/Botany/Statistics/Maths and Social Sciences) with minimum CGPA 2.00/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system. (Preference will be given to the candidates who have studied psychology subject at bachelor level).
BS Psychology 

4 years

Male & Female HSSC or equivalent with 50% marks.
Department of Sociology
MS Sociology 

2 years

Male MA/M.Sc/BS (4 years) in Sociology / Rural Sociology / Anthropology / Social Work / Women Gender Studies with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system.  GAT (General) with minimum 50% score. (Deficiency courses will be given if essential)
M.Sc. Sociology 

2 years

Male & Female BA/B.Sc with minimum CGPA 2.00/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system
BS Sociology 

4 years

Male & Female HSSC or equivalent with 50% marks.
Department of Media & Communication Studies
MS Media and Communication 

2 years

Male MA / M.Sc / BS-(4 years) (Mass Communication) with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.
M.Sc Media & Communication 

2 years

 

Male & Female BA or equivalent with minimum CGPA 2.00/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system.
BS Media & Communication 

4 years

Male & Female HSSC or equivalent with minimum 50% marks. 

 

Department of Islamic Art & Architecture
MA (IAA) 

2 years

Male & Female Bachelor degree with minimum CGPA 2.00/4.00 or 50% marks.
BS (IAA) 

4 years

Male & Female HSSC or equivalent with 50% marks.
FACULTY OF SHARIAH & LAW
Ph.D  Islamic Banking & Finance 

3 years

Male & Female MS/M.Phil Islamic Finance, LLM, MS/M.Phil Shariah/Islamic Studies/ Law, MS/M.Phil Economics/MS Finance or equivalent with minimum CGPA 3.00/4.00 or 65% marks in annual system. GRE/GAT (Subject) type test conducted by authorized body / department with minimum 70% score. 

Note: The candidate must have M.Phil/MS/LLM level research relevant to Islamic Banking & Finance.

Ph.D Law 

3 years

Male & Female LL.M or equivalent with minimum CGPA 3.00/4.00 or 60% in annual system.  GRE/GAT (Subject) type test conducted by authorized body / department with minimum 70% score.
LL.M Shariah 

(Islamic Law & Jurisprudence)*

2 years

Male & Female LL.B Shariah & Law/LLB (Hons)/LL.B with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.
MS Shariah 

(Islamic Law & Jurisprudence) *

2 Years

Male & Female M.A Islamic Studies-(16 years) or equivalent/BS Islamic Studies / Shariah-(4 years) / BS Economics /B.Sc (Hons) Economics-(4 tears) or  (Al-Shahada Al-almiyyah (HEC Recognized, along with Matric, FA, BA Degrees) with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.
LL.M Islamic Commercial Law * 

2 Years

Male & Female LL.B Shariah & Law/LLB (Hons)/LL.B with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.
MS Islamic Commercial Law * 

2 years

Male & Female M.A Islamic Studies-(16 years) or equivalent/BS Islamic Studies / Shariah-(4 years) / BS Economics /B.Sc (Hons) Economics-(4 tears) or  (Al-Shahada Al-almiyyah (HEC Recognized, along with Matric, FA, BA Degrees) with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.
LL.M. Muslim Family Law * 

2 years

Male & Female LL.B Shariah & Law/LLB (Hons)/LLB with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.
MS Muslim Family Law * 

2 years

Male & Female M.A Islamic Studies-(16 years) or equivalent / BS Islamic Studies / Shariah-(4 years) / BS Economics or (Al-Shahadatul Al-almiyyah (HEC Recognized, along with Matric, FA, BA Degrees) with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 60% marks in annual system. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.
LL.M. Corporate Law 

2 years

Male & Female LL.B or Equivalent with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system.  GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.
LL.M Human Rights Law 

2 years

Male & Female LL.B or Equivalent with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.
MS Human Rights Law 

2 years

Male & Female 16 years of schooling i.e. M.A/ M.Sc/ B.sc/BS-(4 years) with minimum CGPA 2.50/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system. GAT (General) with minimum 50% score.
B.A. / LL.B. Shariah & Law 

5 years (Including Language year)

Male & Female HSSC or equivalent with minimum 50% marks.
LL.B (Evening) 

3 years

Male & Female B.A /B.Sc. or equivalent with minimum CGPA 2.00/4.00 or 50% marks in annual system.
Note:(*)             MS/LL.M Shariah and its allied programs will be offered in Arabic & English Mediums; however proficiency in both languages and aptitude  will be required. Additional courses of Shairah & Law as per IIU policy.

 

Note:

The university reserves the right to drop any course, if number of candidates is less than the sufficient number to conduct the program / course.

Candidates holding degrees from other universities shall be required to study/pass prescribed preparatory course work (if required by the Faculty).  Time spent in preparatory courses and Language proficiency shall not be counted towards normal degree duration.

 

Students with Awaiting Results (for BS & MA/M.Sc):

Candidates awaiting result may also apply. However, they are required to submit an undertaking that they shall submit overall pass result of required degree latest by 30.10.2013. However, if fail in any subject or fail to secure required marks or CGPA their admission shall stand cancelled without any notice.  They must not conceal the fact and immediately report to Admission Office for refund of tuition fee as per notified refund policy given in the prospectus of IIU.

 

 

NTS / GAT Scores:

No forms for MS/PhD level programs will be accepted on;

a)            Result awaited basis, and

b)            Without required NTS / GAT (General) and NTS / GAT (Subject) scores respectively.

 

 

Test Schedule:

Schedule of Admission test is also available on IIUI website www.iiu.edu.pk. No separate call letter will be issued to the candidates.  Result of the Admission Test will be announced through IIUI website within five days after date of admission test/interview.   Only successful candidates will be called for interview.  Candidates for BA/BS/BSc/LLB are exempted from interview.

 

Hostels:

There are currently no seats available in the University Hostels.  The few seats which become occasionally available are preferably allotted to the overseas students.

 

Transport:

Transport facility will be subject to availability.

 

Submission of Application Form for Admission:

  • Admission Form can be purchased against payment of Rs.300/- from (1) HBL IIUI Branch, Sector H-10, (2) First Women Bank Ltd., Female Campus, IIUI Branch Sector H-10 (3) Allied Bank Ltd., Female Campus, IIUI Branch Sector H-10, Islamabad. Admission Form and Admission Guide will be available in Banks w.e.f Monday, 10th June, 2013.
  • Admission form can be obtained through by post sending self addressed envelope of (size 10” x 12”) along with a draft of Rs.350/- in favour of International Islamic University, Islamabad, latest by July 01, 2013.
  • Admission Form can also be downloaded from IIUI website www.iiu.edu.pk.
  • Candidates holding A-level certificates or equivalent and Deeni Madrasa certificates from recognized and registered Wifaqs / Board are required to submit equivalence certificate from IBCC or HEC for admission to their respective program along with their application.
  • In all programs admissions are restricted to limited seats.  Only those candidates who fulfill the basic eligibility and pass the entrance test will be considered on merit.
  • Duly signed admission form in duplicate completed in all respect along with two sets of attested copies of academic record and a draft of Rs.700/- (if downloaded form then Rs.1,000/-) in favour of International Islamic University, Islamabad as non refundable admission processing fee must be submitted or reached IIUI before 12-07-2013 (Friday) on the following addresses:

 

Male candidates should send their form to:   Admission Office (Male), Basement Admin Block, International Islamic University, Sector H-10, Islamabad, Pakistan

Ph: +92-51-9257988, 9019616; Fax: +92-51-9257915.

 

Female candidates should send their form to: Admission Office (Female), Ground Floor, Admin Block, International Islamic University, Sector H-10, Islamabad, Pakistan Ph: +92-51-9257985, 9019327, 9019877, 9019288; Fax: +92-51-9257929

 

ADMISSION INFORMATION DESK
MALE: FEMALE:
Ph.: +92-51-9019567, 9019749, 9019750, 901969 Ph.: +92-51-9019327, 9019877, 9019854

Ms. Shagufta Haroon Director (Academics) International Islamic University Admin Block, Sector H-10, Islamabad Ph: +92-51-9257988, 9019616 Fax: +92-51-9257915 E-mail: admissions@iiu.edu.pk

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